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Do dialects count as ’languages’?

 Language Learning Forum : General discussion Post Reply
27 messages over 4 pages: 1 2 3 4  Next >>
fanatic
Octoglot
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Australia
speedmathematics.com
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Speaks: English*, German, French, Afrikaans, Italian, Spanish, Russian, Dutch
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 Message 1 of 27
25 May 2005 at 11:14pm | IP Logged 
ElComadreja wrote:
This sounds like cheating to me. Hey I speak English, American English, Canadian English, Indian English, and Ebonics. Hey I'm a polyglot! 0:)


This has been debated on other forums on this site. What makes a language a different language to another? If I speak Australian I am understood in Canada and America. Sometimes I will have to explain a word in use in Australia and sometimes a word in Australia will have a different meaning elsewhere.

For instance, when I was visiting the Surrey School Board in Vancouver, Canada, they took delight in telling me that one of their staff was "crook." In Australia, we use "crook" to mean sick or ill. It has a quite different meaning elsewhere.

But when I lived in Germany, we lived in a small village in Bavaria with its own dialect. Germans visiting from the north couldn't understand a word and I had to interpret. The language was not intelligible to outsiders. The swabian (Schwaebisch) dialect could have been Chinese for me and my German collegues from the north. We couldn't understand a word. But, the language has the same structure as high German.

How can you say someone is speaking the same language as you if you can't understand a word? Platt Deutsch is similar to Dutch, but it is regarded only as a dialect of German but Dutch is regarded as a different language.

Certainly, the differences in German are much greater than the variations in English between England, America, Australia, South Africa and New Zealand.

On the other hand, I have trouble understanding many Scots and Irish.

I don't think you can say that you speak extra languages because you understand the dialects, but where do they begin and end?

Edited by administrator on 27 May 2005 at 12:11am

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Raistlin Majere
Trilingual Hexaglot
Senior Member
Spain
uciprotour-cycling.c
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Speaks: English*, Spanish*, Catalan*, FrenchA1, Italian, German
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 Message 2 of 27
26 May 2005 at 2:54am | IP Logged 
That depends: Fanatic, what kind of differences are there between Schwäbisch and High German? Are they merely differences in vocabulary and pronunciation, or do they also affect grammar? And, how big is the difference in both kinds of written German?

If it's just vocabulary and pronunciation, Schwäbisch shuuld be regarded as just a dialect of German. On the other hand, if differences are really present in grammar too, then perhaps they are different languages.

However, I must agree with ElComadreja; that's cheating.
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fanatic
Octoglot
Senior Member
Australia
speedmathematics.com
Joined 7152 days ago

1152 posts - 1818 votes 
Speaks: English*, German, French, Afrikaans, Italian, Spanish, Russian, Dutch
Studies: Swedish, Norwegian, Polish, Modern Hebrew, Malay, Mandarin, Esperanto

 
 Message 3 of 27
26 May 2005 at 9:18pm | IP Logged 
Maybe a better analogy would be with German and Yiddish. We have radio programs in Yiddish in Melbourne and if you understand German, you can understand much of the Yiddish. In fact, it depends on who is speaking and what they are speaking about as to whether you will understand it. The grammar is different to High German and the alphabet is the same as Hebrew so the written languages are quite different. They are regarded as separate languages, but Yiddish is possibly easier to understand for the average German than some German dialects.

Just a note.

I have read and downloaded many of the stories from the Polyglot section. They have inspired me, and inspired me to learn even more languages and to put in even more effort.

It is one of my favourite sections of the forum.

Thank you for including it.

Edited by fanatic on 27 May 2005 at 5:50am

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ennime
Tetraglot
Senior Member
South Africa
universityofbrokengl
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Speaks: English, Dutch*, Esperanto, Afrikaans
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 Message 5 of 27
02 May 2009 at 6:02pm | IP Logged 
I think politics play a part in it (I don't mean politics as political discussion
banned here on the forum), for example in Belgium the Flemish community does not
recognize any regional languages, they are just considered dialects and have no
official status, considering the already complicated situation with a trilingual
country that has serious issues with it's different language communities that is no
surprise (Wallonie on the other hand does recognize several regional languages)

I was talking to someone from Indonesia a while back about the difference of Bahasa
Indonesia and Melayu, officially considered different languages politically but the
difference is less big than between some Chinese "dialects" which are not mutually
intelligible at all.
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Tyr
Senior Member
Sweden
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 Message 6 of 27
02 May 2009 at 7:05pm | IP Logged 
Languages are quite unfair on us English speakers vs. Scandinavians.
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ennime
Tetraglot
Senior Member
South Africa
universityofbrokengl
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 Message 7 of 27
02 May 2009 at 7:14pm | IP Logged 
Tyr wrote:
Languages are quite unfair on us English speakers vs.
Scandinavians.


how do you mean?
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Earle
Diglot
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United States
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 Message 8 of 27
02 May 2009 at 7:58pm | IP Logged 
Can't believe this oft-resurrected topic has proceeded thus far without anyone stating "A language is a dialect with an army and navy." Of course, that's not strictly true, but it could be modified to "A language is a dialect with political clout." All definitions of "language" vs. "dialect" are, of necessity, muddy. All this said, I agree with the original poster that the relative uniformity of the English language, spread across the world with native speakers, is a bit mystifying when compared with, for example, German dialects from the North Sea to Bavaria. And, once again addressed to the OP, I probably have less trouble with the Irish and Scots accents than he. Of course, in my area of the USA, the largest section of the telephone book begins with "Mc." :)


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