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Koine Greek Translation Discussion Thread

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Sir Lunch-a-lot
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 Message 17 of 28
21 July 2010 at 9:04pm | IP Logged 
At the same time, Thomas may have been using κυριος to mean "master". Ie, my master and my God (also note, adonai and kurios are similar in meaning, and adonai is used in place of yhwh in the Old Testament). Given that Thomas was a Jew, simply calling Jesus θεος would immediately link him to being Yahweh. I think the connection to the Deuteronomy passage would be stronger if Thomas said something like Κυριος ο Θεος μου. As it stands, while there could be a connection there, I doubt it is a certain enough connection to be useful to gain a greater understanding of the passage. That being said, with or without that Deuteronomy connection, it still says the same thing about Thomas' understanding of who Jesus is. Neat thought (and sharp eye/mind on your part to notice the possible connection) all the same. Anyway, that's just my 2 cents.
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JW
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 Message 18 of 28
27 August 2010 at 7:38pm | IP Logged 
Here's a nice grammtical distinction I use to explain 1 John 1:8-9. Many people get into trouble with this passage by failing to distinguish the singular use of ἁμαρτία (hamartia) in verse 8 with the plural use in verse 9:

In verse 8 "sin" is the singular ἁμαρτίαν (hamartian - Accusative SINGULAR feminine) BUT in verse 9 sins is the plural ἁμαρτίας (hamartias - accusative PLURAL feminine). Thus "sin" in verse 8 refers to the "sin nature" which continues to war against the "new nature" (2 Cor 5:17) in the believer and produces the "sins" of verse 9 which take the believer out of fellowship. Verse 9 then gives the provision for the believer to regain fellowship. He simply confesses (ὁμολογέω (homologeo) admits, acknowledges) the particular sin(s) he has committed to God and God is then bound to forgive us and restore us to fellowship because Jesus already paid the penalty for our sins--there is no double jeapordy.

Here is the full passage in the Greek:

8εαν ειπωμεν οτι αμαρτιαν ουκ εχομεν εαυτους πλανωμεν και η αληθεια ουκ εστιν εν ημιν

9εαν ομολογωμεν τας αμαρτιας ημων πιστος εστιν και δικαιος ινα αφη ημιν τας αμαρτιας και καθαριση ημας απο πασης αδικιας


Edited by JW on 27 August 2010 at 7:40pm

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JW
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 Message 19 of 28
01 September 2010 at 6:35pm | IP Logged 
Here is a video I did on the Granville Sharp Rule:

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9RDedwa8OIY
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kidshomestunner
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 Message 20 of 28
02 September 2010 at 9:58pm | IP Logged 
Hi JW I went to an interfaith gay pride religious dialogue type thing and I got into a discussion about corinthians.

I looked up what word Paul used and it was arsenokoitai which I also read that Paul invented from to words arsen and koitai which mean man and bed respectfully.


Do you you know anything else about the word aarsenkoitai???
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JW
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 Message 21 of 28
02 September 2010 at 10:31pm | IP Logged 
kidshomestunner wrote:
Hi JW I went to an interfaith gay pride religious dialogue type thing and I got into a discussion about corinthians.

I looked up what word Paul used and it was arsenokoitai which I also read that Paul invented from to words arsen and koitai which mean man and bed respectfully.


Do you you know anything else about the word aarsenkoitai???

You are referring to ἀρσενοκοίτης (arsenokoites) which is Strongs # 733. ἀρσενοκοῖται (arsenokoitai) is the Nominative Plural Masculine form used in 1 Cor 6:9. It is also used in 1 Tim 1:10 in the Dative Plural Masculine.

It is indeed from ἄρρην (arren) Male, Man (Strongs # 730) and κοίτη (koite) which is Strongs #2845 which has the following meanings:


1) a place for laying down, resting, sleeping in
a) a bed, couch
2) the marriage bed
a) of adultery
3) cohabitation, whether lawful or unlawful
a) sexual intercourse

Thus the compound word means one who lies with a male as with a female, a sodomite, a homosexual.

I don't see that Paul coined the term but I also don't see where there are any usages prior to the NT so he may have.

I'm not sure if this gives you much more than you already knew but at least it confirms it.




Edited by JW on 02 September 2010 at 10:32pm

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Arekkusu
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 Message 22 of 28
02 September 2010 at 11:30pm | IP Logged 
JW wrote:
You are referring to ἀρσενοκοίτης (arsenokoites) which is Strongs # 733.
[...]
Thus the compound word means one who lies with a male as with a female, a sodomite, a
homosexual.

The pronunciation of that word would strongly lead an English speaker into believing an
entirely opposite meaning.

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JW
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 Message 23 of 28
02 September 2010 at 11:55pm | IP Logged 
Arekkusu wrote:
The pronunciation of that word would strongly lead an English speaker into believing an entirely opposite meaning.

I'm probably being dense but I don't get it...
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kidshomestunner
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 Message 24 of 28
03 September 2010 at 1:53am | IP Logged 
JW wrote:


1) a place for laying down, resting, sleeping in
a) a bed, couch
2) the marriage bed
a) of adultery
3) cohabitation, whether lawful or unlawful
a) sexual intercourse

Thus the compound word means one who lies with a male as with a female, a sodomite, a homosexual.


how do you know it is meaning three???? Admittedly one would be out of context but two surely would not?

How do you make the jump to sodomite?

This isn't a loaded question, I'm just genuinely intersted.

Edited by kidshomestunner on 03 September 2010 at 1:54am



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