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Pronunciation of can’t

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nway
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 Message 17 of 68
07 February 2012 at 9:52pm | IP Logged 
I actually realized just a bit ago that the glottal stop only applies to situations where "can't" precedes a consonant. When preceding a vowel, such as "can't you", I do indeed aspirate the "t", although it sounds more like the "ch" in "much" than the "t" that would initiate a word like "taught" or "telephone".

Edited by nway on 07 February 2012 at 9:54pm

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LeadZeppelin
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 Message 18 of 68
08 February 2012 at 3:41pm | IP Logged 
Don't be too worried about this. Even between native speakers we misunderstand can and
can't all the time. I've had to ask other native speakers countless countless times:

"Did you say can or can't?"

The fact is that we just get lazy and don't pronounce the /t/ very hard. Usually from
context you can pick up the meaning, but when the context is ambiguous, you just have to
ask for clarification.

In other words, it's not just you. We talk lazily. :)
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Northernlights
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 Message 19 of 68
08 February 2012 at 4:11pm | IP Logged 
LeadZeppelin wrote:
Don't be too worried about this. Even between native speakers we misunderstand can and
can't all the time. I've had to ask other native speakers countless countless times:

"Did you say can or can't?"

The fact is that we just get lazy and don't pronounce the /t/ very hard. Usually from
context you can pick up the meaning, but when the context is ambiguous, you just have to
ask for clarification.

In other words, it's not just you. We talk lazily. :)



So true! That's what makes understanding foreign languages so hard; if everybody spoke clearly and enunciated every sound it'd be an awful lot easier.

The only person I can think of who always used to say 'can't' extremely clearly was John MacEnroe. Does anyone else remember how he used to exclaim, "You canaaahhht be serious!" whenever the umpire disagreed with him, which was pretty much all the time? lol.

Edited by Northernlights on 08 February 2012 at 4:12pm

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Superking
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 Message 20 of 68
08 February 2012 at 6:02pm | IP Logged 
LeadZeppelin wrote:
Don't be too worried about this. Even between native speakers we misunderstand can and
can't all the time. I've had to ask other native speakers countless countless times:

"Did you say can or can't?"

The fact is that we just get lazy and don't pronounce the /t/ very hard. Usually from
context you can pick up the meaning, but when the context is ambiguous, you just have to
ask for clarification.

In other words, it's not just you. We talk lazily. :)


That word "lazy" in the post kept me from giving this a thumbs up, but you are totally right about the "did you say can or can't" thing. Oftentimes words intersect in an unexpected way, making it hard to tell two rather related words apart. In L.A. Spanish, even native speakers often can't tell if someone said "dos" (two) or "doce" (twelve), especially in phrases like "dos/doce y media" when speaking fast.

In other words, mistaking can for can't and vice versa doesn't mean there's a problem with your English -- on the contrary, it could mean just the opposite.
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anjathilina
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 Message 21 of 68
08 February 2012 at 6:46pm | IP Logged 
This discussion is reminding me of the movie Singin' in the Rain.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=q3OkXi5osfU
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Lucky Charms
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 Message 22 of 68
09 February 2012 at 12:09am | IP Logged 
In regions where the vowels are the same and the "t" of "can't" becomes a glottal stop,
as in my native California (the accent you will hear in most Hollywood productions),
native speakers tell the difference not by the sounds, but by the stress. Modals like
"can" (also "should", the auxiliary "have", etc.) aren't usually stressed, but negative
words (can't, shouldn't, etc.) always are. Here's a more familiar example:

I have seen it. (aiv SINɪʔ) - 1 accent

I haven't seen it. (ai HÆVNʔ SINɪʔ)- 2 accents

similarly:

I can go. (aikn GO) - 1 accent

I can't go. (ai KÆNʔ GO) - 2 accents

As to whether the vowels are the same, in this accent they are the same in isolation,
but in practice the /æ/ of "can" is often reduced (to a schwa or similar) because the
word is unaccented.

This might not be the most technical explanation, but it's worked well for my students.
I hope it helps.

Edited by Lucky Charms on 09 February 2012 at 12:15am

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tarvos
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 Message 23 of 68
09 February 2012 at 1:19am | IP Logged 
I definitely pronounce them both differently. Then again, I was taught the British pronunciation and that one definitely makes a quite obvious distinction.

I find the American way of saying it sounds distinctly "flat" to my ears.
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Serpent
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 Message 24 of 68
09 February 2012 at 9:21am | IP Logged 
Northernlights wrote:
So true! That's what makes understanding foreign languages so hard; if everybody spoke clearly and enunciated every sound it'd be an awful lot easier.

And boring too:)


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