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Subjunctive "If I were you"

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98789
Diglot
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 Message 17 of 39
20 July 2012 at 2:59am | IP Logged 
I guess you're right. So, I think the word subjunctive goes further than I thought.
Probably adding "usted" will solve it:

Si yo era usted = wrong
Si yo fuera usted = right

(ok, strictly talking, the first one could be right, but in very specific/uncommon conditions)
off course I know you can use "si yo era" ("era" is the singular first person past conjugation of "ser"). It was my fault not to properly clarify it, sorry.


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Medulin
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 Message 18 of 39
20 July 2012 at 4:04pm | IP Logged 
''If I was a rich girl...'' (Gwen Stefani)
''What if God was one of us...'' (Joan Osbourne)
''If I was you'' (Pet Shop Boys)...

I don't know why IF I WAS YOU is objected to, while IT'S ME or WHO DID YOU SEE? are not.
Double standards!


In the UK ''If I was you'' is a part of the colloquial language, just like IT'S ME and WHO DID YOU SEE?.

Edited by Medulin on 20 July 2012 at 4:07pm

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Chung
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 Message 19 of 39
20 July 2012 at 4:46pm | IP Logged 
Medulin wrote:
''If I was a rich girl...'' (Gwen Stefani)
''What if God was one of us...'' (Joan Osbourne)
''If I was you'' (Pet Shop Boys)...

I don't know why IF I WAS YOU is objected to, while IT'S ME or WHO DID YOU SEE? are not.
Double standards!


In the UK ''If I was you'' is a part of the colloquial language, just like IT'S ME and WHO DID YOU SEE?.
.

I've actually avoided using "it's me" for some time and instead say "It's Chung" when someone asks me "who is it?" but can't see me. All of that Eastern European influence probably did it for me. Cf. Slovak: Kto je to? - To som ja, Chung!. French was no help (being my other fluent language) as a model since they say c'est moi! rather than *c'est je!.

Regarding "whom" and "who"...

In “Languages changing your native language” Chung wrote:
[...]
3) On a related note, my knowledge of Hungarian has also sharpened my use of "who" as a relative pronoun when referring to people. I reserve "that" and "which" for antecedents that are not identifiable with a definitively or unambiguously personal antecedent.

For example, I find it odd to say or even wrong to say: "She's the friend that lives in Europe." I would use "She's the friend WHO lives in Europe. In addition, most of "my" foreign languages regularly decline personal pronouns. This means that I still distinguish between "who" and "whom" as applicable.

It may sound slightly odd to some native-speakers but I consistently use something such as "Whom did you ask?" or "To whom did we talk?" (or "Whom did we talk to?")

By analogy to certain languages I tend to avoid merging "who" and "whom" in English.

E.g.

Finnish:

- Kuka sä oot? = "Who're you?"
- Kenelle soitat? = "Whom are you calling?" / "Whom will you call?"

Saying something such as "Who are you calling?" or like from the song from "Ghostbusters": "Who you gonna call?" seems wrong to me and the influence from foreign languages helps me avoid the common merging of "who" and "whom".

Hungarian:

- Ki az? = "Who's that?"
- Az a lány, akivel tegnap beszéltem. = "That's the girl with whom I spoke yesterday." / "That's the girl whom I spoke with yesterday."

I would correct myself if I were to say: "That's the girl who I spoke with yesterday."


I try to be consistent. That's the best that I can do.

You are right though that it's common in colloquial English (not to mention even journalistic English) to say "If I was...". I remember Cainntear stubbornly adhering to "if I was..." even after someone posted that he should (could?) have used "if I were...".
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Gala
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 Message 20 of 39
20 July 2012 at 7:59pm | IP Logged 
Medulin wrote:
''If I was a rich girl...'' (Gwen Stefani)
''What if God was one of us...'' (Joan Osbourne)
''If I was you'' (Pet Shop Boys)...

I don't know why IF I WAS YOU is objected to, while IT'S ME or WHO DID YOU SEE? are
not.
Double standards!


In the UK ''If I was you'' is a part of the colloquial language, just like IT'S ME and
WHO DID YOU SEE?.


It's true that all three are incorrect, but (at least in the US) "If I was you"
sounds worse than "It's me" or "Who did you see?" There are many more people
that would say the latter 2 than would say the former. It's not a matter of a double
standard, just a matter of the norms of the spoken language: some grammatical errors
seem more egregious than others, simply because they are less common. Anyway, neither
of those phrases were being discussed in this thread, so I don't know how you got the
idea that a double standard was being displayed.

I remember that when that Joan Osborne song was a hit, everyone was making fun of her
for that line. And Gwen Stefani? Please, she's barely literate. I'd say pop lyrics in
general are misleading as a mirror for the standard spoken language, as it has long
been considered cool for them to be slangy and grammatically incorrect.

I think it's wise for non-native speakers of a language to try to adhere to its
grammatical rules a bit more rigidly than many native speakers do, in order to avoid
the confusion likely to result from trying to figure out which errors are common,
which ones give the impression of extreme ignorance, and which are a result of
interference from their L1.



Edited by Gala on 20 July 2012 at 8:02pm

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emk
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 Message 21 of 39
20 July 2012 at 9:36pm | IP Logged 
Gala wrote:
Medulin wrote:

I don't know why IF I WAS YOU is objected to, while IT'S ME or WHO DID YOU SEE? are
not. Double standards!

In the UK ''If I was you'' is a part of the colloquial language, just like IT'S ME and
WHO DID YOU SEE?.


It's true that all three are incorrect, but (at least in the US) "If I was you"
sounds worse than "It's me" or "Who did you see?"


If your grammar book calls any of these three "incorrect", you might want to look for a
better grammar book. All three of these expressions are widely used by educated English
speakers. You could claim that that some of them are informal. But "incorrect"
is a bit strong.

It's me.

According to Merriam-Webster's Concise Dictionary of English Usage (MWCDEU),
expressions like "T'was I" and "T'is she" were extremely common in stage dialog in the
latter half of the 1600s. In the 1700s, most grammarians still came down on in favor of
"I". (But then again, many English-language grammarians of that period were incompetent
charlatans playing on the class anxieties of upwardly-mobile book buyers.)

But by the latter half the 20th century, most grammarians appear to agree that both
forms are perfectly acceptable, and you should decide between them based on style. The
MWCDEU even has a nice citation of Winston Churchill saying, "This is me, Winston
Churchill…" from 1946. If it's OK for Churchill, it's probably OK for most students of
English.

At least in my dialect (northeastern US), responding to "Who's there?" with "It is I"
makes you sound like a British butler in a black-and-white movie.

Who did you see?

MWCDEU has a long list of examples from Shakespeare dating from 1595 to 1605. The Bard
uses both "who" and "whom" as the object of verbs. Again, the grammarians got
all worked up in the 1700s, but they didn't change much. Further citations show that
modern writers continue to use both "who" and "whom" as the spirit moves them.
Interesting, "whom" is in no danger of dying out. Again, if "who" is good enough for
Shakespeare (and for Noah Webster), then it's good enough for me.

(There's an interesting aside in MWCDEU about nominative "whom"(!), which is a really
weird and long-standing phenomenon in certain kinds of relative clauses.)

If I was you

Personally, I prefer "were" here. But MWCDEU has citations of "was" from Jonathan
Swift, Lord Byron, Robert Frost and Henry Adams.

All three of these expressions have been used for hundreds of years, in both England
and the US. They've all been used by writers of indisputable authority. So on the one
side, we've got some 18th century grammarians and a bunch of introductory textbooks
written by committees. On the other side, we've got Churchill, Shakespeare, Noah
Webster, Lord Byron and Robert Frost, all of whom used these allegedly "incorrect"
expressions.

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Random review
Diglot
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 Message 22 of 39
20 July 2012 at 11:14pm | IP Logged 
Can't resist adding my opinions to those above!

As I said above the difference between "if I were" and "if I was" feels to me like one
of register, but personally I strongly prefer "if I were you" to "if I was you" as it
feels to me like a set-phrase. I guess what we have here is a case of language in
transition, I suspect the subjunctive form will die out eventually (except in set-
phrases).


Who(m) did you see? This native speaker's opinion is that both are correct in
the written language, but I can't imagine using "whom" in the spoken language (except
humorously)- mainly because I don't like being despised as stuck-up.

It's me/I. Sorry, but I can't imagine using "it is I" even in writing (except
ironically- and even here I'd go the whole hog and say "'tis I"). In the UK, working
class people would think you a bit stuck up for using whom, but they'd think you
bizarre (possibly even not quite sane) for using "it is I"! That said, if one thing
could convince me to start using the "it is I" structure it's what emk said above (that
Churchill used "it is me")!

I rather like Chung's compromise and could quite happily say, "it's Martin".


So for what it's worth my opinion is:

"If I was/were": transitional phase- both forms acceptable but with an
appreciable difference in register.

"Who(m) did you see?": Still transitional in writing (both forms acceptable,
again with a difference in degree of formality) but "whom" is dead in most
spoken dialects of UK English.

"It's me/ I": My opinion is that "it is I" is dead- at least in the UK.

It's all about opinions :-)

Gwen Stefani: barely literate seems a little harsh, but....
link

Edited by Random review on 20 July 2012 at 11:29pm

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Gala
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 Message 23 of 39
21 July 2012 at 1:43am | IP Logged 
I consulted no grammar book, as I don’t own an English one; I trust my ear. I believed
all of those 3 phrases to be technically incorrect because that is what I was taught in
school. Maybe I was wrong, but that was not the point of my post. The point was not
(as you seem to think) to prescriptively condemn all of those phrases as incorrect, but
rather to disagree with Medulin’s contention that “If I was you” is as “normal”
and accepted in spoken English as “It’s me” or “Who did you see?” I often hear and
always have heard phrases like the latter 2 (and I use them myself), but I don’t often
hear “If I was you.” When I do, it sounds wrong. People that say it also tend to be
generally poorly-spoken.

Have you read this whole thread? It began with a non-native English speaker reporting
that he had been corrected by another non-native speaker for saying “If I were you;” he
was told that it was wrong and that “If I was you” was correct. Many posters, including
myself, pointed out that not only is the former technically correct, but that it is not
even standard usage to say the latter. Someone wrote something to the effect that
this phrase is one of the few instances in which most native English speakers will
instinctively and correctly use the subjunctive. I still agree absolutely, and the fact
that Jonathan Swift once wrote it otherwise means nothing to me. Not many people speak
like Jonathan Swift wrote.

I never had any quibble with the other 2 phrases; I thought they were grammatically
incorrect, but that’s never stopped me from using them. Like both you and Random
Review, I’d never say “It is I.”

I do however find it odd that your usage guide holds up all those examples from non-
contemporary and even archaic writers of fiction and poetry. Even contemporary writings
of this sort wouldn’t seem to me to be the most appropriate examples of usage, as there
is a tendency for them to do all sorts of non-standard things with the language in the
interest of a colorful or original narrative voice. But to compound this tendency with
using centuries-old material really baffles me….especially that they cite Shakespeare!
English has changed a lot since the Elizabethan era, to put it mildly. I think you need
to look for a better usage book.


Edited by Gala on 21 July 2012 at 1:50am

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Random review
Diglot
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 Message 24 of 39
21 July 2012 at 2:06am | IP Logged 
Gala wrote:
I often hear and always have heard phrases like the latter 2 (and I use
them myself), but I don’t often hear “If I was you.” When I do, it sounds wrong.
People that say it also tend to be generally poorly-spoken.


Could there be a difference between UK and US English here?

In the UK well-spoken, educated speakers use the non-subjunctive structure all the
time
in the spoken language and in informal writing. As far as the spoken language
is concerned it is not confined to the uneducated. Formal written UK English is another
matter, of course. Thus I doubt you'll find "if I was you" in an article in 'The
Guardian'; but even a quick google search will reveal many examples of educated
speakers writing "if I was you" in the comments pages of the online version.

As I've often said on this forum (sorry to keep repeating) my personal opinion (which I
know is far from universally shared here) is that to know whether something is correct
you have to ask the people who use the language whether they think it is correct (in
that particular social context). By that criterion "if I was you" is correct in spoken
UK English but incorrect in very formal writing (and to judge by what Gala has written,
also incorrect in spoken US English). I think it's fair to say that "if I were you" is
always correct, though it may make you sound a bit pompous in some circles in the UK.
Personally I think it sounds nicer too.

Edited by Random review on 21 July 2012 at 2:11am



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