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Subjunctive "If I were you"

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Gala
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 Message 25 of 39
21 July 2012 at 3:05am | IP Logged 
Random review wrote:


Could there be a difference between UK and US English here?

In the UK well-spoken, educated speakers use the non-subjunctive structure all the
time
in the spoken language and in informal writing. As far as the spoken language
is concerned it is not confined to the uneducated. Formal written UK English is another
matter, of course. Thus I doubt you'll find "if I was you" in an article in 'The
Guardian'; but even a quick google search will reveal many examples of educated
speakers writing "if I was you" in the comments pages of the online version.

As I've often said on this forum (sorry to keep repeating) my personal opinion (which I
know is far from universally shared here) is that to know whether something is correct
you have to ask the people who use the language whether they think it is correct (in
that particular social context). By that criterion "if I was you" is correct in spoken
UK English but incorrect in very formal writing (and to judge by what Gala has written,
also incorrect in spoken US English). I think it's fair to say that "if I were you" is
always correct, though it may make you sound a bit pompous in some circles in the UK.
Personally I think it sounds nicer too.


It must be a UK/US difference, then. I'm definitely no expert on British English, but I
still get the impression that even in the UK "If I was you" might be a bit lower in
register than "It's me" or "Who did you see?", seeing as you wrote that you would never
use the excessively proper-sounding alternatives to the latter 2, but do often say "If
I were you."

EDIT:I remember that episode of Family Guy, it slayed me. I almost referred to that
song as evidence against Gwen's command of English.

Edited by Gala on 21 July 2012 at 3:13am

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Gala
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 Message 26 of 39
20 September 2012 at 11:58pm | IP Logged 
Part of an article on Gawker.com about homophobic remarks Paris Hilton recently made
led me to recall, and now resurrect, this thread:

"Paris said:'.....I would be so scared if I was a gay guy. You'll like, die of
AIDS.'

This is an example of an idiot saying something idiotic (her disregard of the
subjunctive mood is almost as offensive as her ideology
)...." (italics added)


Gawker is hardly a high-brow publication (which kind of goes without saying, as they
feature an article about Hilton,) yet at least one of their writers considers the use
of "If I was you..." (and in speech, not writing) to be worthy of censure. I think this
is typical of how that usage is regarded by most even moderately well-spoken Americans.

Edited by Gala on 21 September 2012 at 12:16am

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Ari
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 Message 27 of 39
21 September 2012 at 8:27am | IP Logged 


Also, see this article on why "If I were" isn't even a subjunctive.

Quote:
It isn't actually the subjunctive. People often call the "were" of "I wish I were" subjunctive, but that term is much better used (as in The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language) for the construction with "be" seen in "I demand that it be done." The "were" form is often wrongly called a past subjunctive, but of course "it were done" is not a past tense of "it be done". The difference between the two is that the subjunctive construction occurs with any verb: "I demand that this cease" is a subjunctive (notice "this cease", not "this ceases"). The relic form in "I were" is only available for "be". For all other verbs you use the preterite: "I wish I went to New York more often." The Cambridge Grammar calls the "were" form the irrealis form. It is surviving robustly in expressions like "if I were you", but even there it has a universally accepted alternate "if I was you", and there is no semantic distinction there to preserve.

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emk
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 Message 28 of 39
21 September 2012 at 3:05pm | IP Logged 
Gala wrote:
Gawker is hardly a high-brow publication (which kind of goes without
saying, as they feature an article about Hilton,) yet at least one of their writers
considers the use of "If I was you..." (and in speech, not writing) to be worthy of
censure. I think this is typical of how that usage is regarded by most even moderately
well-spoken Americans.


Highly-educated Americans use 'if I were you' and 'if I was you' interchangeably all
the time,
and have done so for generations. Only a tiny subset of people will ever
notice or care, and that subset can be safely ignored.

The key here may be "moderately well-spoken Americans". Being "moderately" well-spoken
is perhaps like being nouveau riche—it comes with certain insecurities and
status markers that old money would never worry about.

As I mentioned upthread, a highly-respectable New England poet like Robert Frost was
perfectly happy using "If I was…". So Gawker is trying to be more linguistically
refined than Robert Frost, which is a bit ridiculous. It's like an investment banker
lecturing the Rockefellers about how the rich should act, or the Rockefellers doing the
same to the Boston Brahmins.

Edited by emk on 21 September 2012 at 3:13pm

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Ari
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 Message 29 of 39
21 September 2012 at 3:53pm | IP Logged 
emk wrote:
Highly-educated Americans use 'if I were you' and 'if I was you' interchangeably all the time, and have done so for generations.

And here's proof of that, courtesy of Language Log and the power of graphs:



Ok, so "I wish I were" and "if I were" are not the same thing, but they're grammatically equivalent with regards to this issue.

EDIT: Note that this is a corpus search, so it's based on written English.

Edited by Ari on 21 September 2012 at 3:54pm

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Gala
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 Message 30 of 39
21 September 2012 at 7:00pm | IP Logged 
emk wrote:

As I mentioned upthread, a highly-respectable New England poet like Robert Frost was
perfectly happy using "If I was…". So Gawker is trying to be more linguistically
refined than Robert Frost, which is a bit ridiculous.


And as I previously mentioned, using examples from literature to prove what the norms
of the standard written (or even spoken) forms of a language are is a problematic
practice, as writers of fiction, poetry, and drama frequently employ non-standard forms
in the interest of creating colorful or authentically regional "voice(s)". Robert Frost
in particular certainly did:

"Drawing his language primarily from the vernacular, he avoided artificial poetic
diction by employing the accent of a soft-spoken New Englander. In The Function of
Criticism, Yvor Winters faulted Frost for his "endeavor to make his style approximate
as closely as possible the style of conversation." But what Frost achieved in his
poetry was much more complex than a mere imitation of the New England farmer idiom. He
wanted to restore to literature the "sentence sounds that underlie the words," the
"vocal gesture" that enhances meaning. That is, he felt the poet's ear must be
sensitive to the voice in order to capture with the written word the significance of
sound in the spoken word. "The Death of the Hired Man," for instance, consists almost
entirely of dialogue between Mary and Warren, her farmer-husband, but critics have
observed that in this poem Frost takes the prosaic patterns of their speech and makes
them lyrical. To Ezra Pound "The Death of the Hired Man" represented Frost at his best—
when he "dared to write ... in the natural speech of New England; in natural spoken
speech, which is very different from the 'natural' speech of the newspapers, and of
many professors."

Frost's use of New England dialect is only one aspect of his often discussed
regionalism." http://www.poetryfoundation.org/bio/robert-frost

Edited by Gala on 21 September 2012 at 7:57pm

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Gala
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 Message 31 of 39
21 September 2012 at 7:22pm | IP Logged 
Ari wrote:

Ok, so "I wish I were" and "if I were" are not the same thing, but they're grammatically
equivalent with regards to this issue.


They (and their "was" counterparts) may be grammatically equivalent in terms of their use
and its "correctness" (or lack thereof,) but that isn't really the issue. The issue is
whether or not "If I were (something I'm absolutely not and will never be)" as a set
phrase is still much-preferred in standard written and spoken American English over "If I
was (something I'm absolutely not and will never be)", even though the stigma of
"incorrectness" has died away (at least in speech)for many other such grammatical
distinctions (who/whom,etc.)
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Gala
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229 posts - 421 votes 
Speaks: English*, Spanish
Studies: Italian

 
 Message 32 of 39
21 September 2012 at 7:47pm | IP Logged 
As far as subjunctive vs."irrealis" goes, it could be that my background in Spanish
(where both of these are absolutely subjuntivo) makes me stubborn on this, but I
refuse to adopt this rarefied distinction. The textbook for the Advanced English
Grammar class I'm taking this semester categorizes "If I were" constructions as
subjunctive mood. I don't see why the fact that there is no strictly subjunctive *form*
that the verb takes would mean that it isn't in the subjunctive *mood.*

BTW, the text (which does not take a firmly prescriptive stance) classifies usages such
as "If Joe was here..." as "fairly common," but not standard for writing. My feeling is
that phrases such as "If I were you" call for the subjunctive more strongly than those
like "If Joe were here," because the latter is within the realm of possibility: Joe
could very well be here at some point in the future. Clearly, however, no one is ever
going to become the person they are addressing. The text doesn't mention "If I was you"
as an alternative for "If I were you," which I think it would if it were approaching
standard status. It mentions many usages that were previously considered incorrect that
are now standard or close to it.

Edited by Gala on 21 September 2012 at 7:55pm



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