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French diglossia- thoughts for discussion

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Jeffers
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 Message 17 of 38
02 April 2015 at 11:27am | IP Logged 
kanewai wrote:
This turned out to be a longer tangent than I intended. Sorry, Jeffers!


It was interesting (although I was aware in general of the things you wrote about). I heard in a medieval history class that the magician's phrase "hocus pocus" comes from priests who couldn't really speak Latin mangling "hoc est mea corpus", "this is my body". Since the phrase was spoken at the moment the elements were transformed into the body and blood of Christ, it was taken up to be used at any magical transformation. It makes sense, but I'd like to know at what point it actually entered the world of magical spells. But as you say.... this is quite a tangent!

Back to my original post, whether we think it counts as diglossia or not, I'd like to see some experienced people posting about other differences between spoken and written French. Okay, many of us have argued that it's no worse than most other languages, but still, it's something which surprises new learners when they speak with a French person for the first time, or when they start watching/listening to French.

One of the big pronunciation features I have noticed is they way people say "je". The J sounds like an English "sh", so that "je suis" sounds something like "shoe-ee" (English pronunciation). This will be one of the examples that will make a beginner think they are hearing a different language, because they won't understand it as "je suis". I learnt it thanks to subtitled TV shows.
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Ogrim
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 Message 18 of 38
02 April 2015 at 3:11pm | IP Logged 
Yes, "je suis" is often pronounced as a monosyllabic "shuis". (Sorry about the lack of phonetic symbols, but my current PC doesn't allow me to use them.) The same goes for "tu es", which I often hear as "t'es". You will find the same when the order is inverted, e.g. "Que sais-je" pronounced as "que saish" and "Es-tu sûr?" as "Et sûr?"

Another typical feature of spoken French, especially amongst younger people, but not only, is to reduce polysyllabic words to monosyllabic or bisyllabic words. Some examples:
La faculté . la fac
Le bacaleaureat - le bac
le professeur - le prof
le restaurant - le resto
la publicité - la pub
Comme d'habitude - comme d'hab
D'accord - d'acc
la sécurité sociale - la sécu
McDonald - "macdo"

This tendency is widespread. For "Ne t'inquiète pas" you often just hear "t'inquiète", "ta gueule" instead of "ferme ta gueule" etc.


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Jeffers
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 Message 19 of 38
02 April 2015 at 4:05pm | IP Logged 
Thank you for those features, Ogrim. It's interesting that I've come across most of them in my studies. La fac, le prof and le resto all come up in French in Action, along with la bibli. I've seen "d'acc" in Le Petit Nicolas as well as in the Lego City game; in both cases someone was being incredibly lazy when they said "d'acc". I've heard "t'inquiète", "ta gueule" on TV shows. Ironically, I don't think I've come across the full version, "ferme ta gueule", so I never knew that "ta gueule" was short for it. I just knew that "ta guele" means "shut up". So a multi-track, media heavy approach definitely helps get a handle on these things.
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Sizen
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 Message 20 of 38
02 April 2015 at 10:35pm | IP Logged 
Something in my mind doesn't want to consider abbreviations of words as a form of
diglossia. In my mind, diglossia is something more extreme, like how in Japanese,
complete phrases can be replaced with words based on Chinese roots in writing. (For
example, 来日する (rainichi suru) replacing 日本に来る (nihon ni kuru) in the case of
"coming to Japan")

For me, the only thing that comes close to this in French, and it surprises me that it
hasn't been mentioned yet, is the use of the simple past and the past forms of the
subjunctive in some forms of written French. With the exception of a few expressions
("ce fut un plaisir", or "encore eût-il fallu que je le susse", for example), these
forms are never used in speech. The opposite argument could be made that these forms
are being disregarded in favour of their speech equivalents by younger generations, so
it's become more of a generational difference than anything else.

Edited by Sizen on 02 April 2015 at 11:04pm

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kanewai
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 Message 21 of 38
02 April 2015 at 10:35pm | IP Logged 
anamsc2 wrote:

I was unable to find McWhorter's definition of diglossia, so I'm not exactly sure what
you mean by a broader definition. However, I think there's still some confusion about
diglossia applying to a language as a whole. No definition of diglossia that I'm aware
of restricts it to two varieties of the same language; a situation can be diglossice
with two separate languages as well. So whether or not Venetian is a separate language
has no bearing on whether the Veneto is diglossic.


It took me awhile to find it, but it was from his chapter titled "Dialects - Two
Tongues in One Mouth." Hopefully I can find a transcript; the chapter description
reads:

Diglossia is the sociological division of labor in many societies between two
languages, with a "high" one used in formal contexts and a "low" one used in casual
ones - as in High German and Swiss German in Switzerland.


He didn't focus on French per se, he just referred to it in some of his anecdotes.

I did find some works on-line by Benjamin Massot (L'hypothèse d'une diglossie en
France
) and Paul Rowlett (Syntactic Variation in French: Diglossia and Language
Change
), but I have no idea if these guys are respected in the field or considered
fringe.

Massot's introduction, though, uses a lot of the same terminology the McWhorter uses:

On a depuis longtemps fait le constat de nombreuses variantes grammaticales en
français (la négation avec et sans "ne", SV(O) vs. la dislocation à gauche, etc.), les
unes étant valorisées et les autres stigmatisées. Dans ce travail, on défend l'idée
que l'on a affaire à une situation de diglossie. Cela suppose que les locuteurs
intériorisent deux grammaires : l'une, le "français démotique", est acquise "sur les
genoux de la mère" et l'autre, le "français classique tardif", est acquise à l'école
et à travers les institutions qui exigent son emploi. On place cette problématique
dans un cadre qui requiert l'étude des productions spontanées, l'abandon de
l'opposition oral-écrit et de son caractère explicatif, et une transcription
phonologique des données. À travers l'étude du nombre, de la négation, et des
alternatives à SV(O), on montre l'intérêt descriptif et typologique de décrire deux
grammaires. Chaque grammaire ainsi décrite est plus consistante. Enfin, une étude de
corpus observe un locuteur diglosse, qui n'active bien qu'une grammaire à la fois : il
mélange par exemple la dislocation à gauche avec la négation sans "ne", mais jamais
avec la négation avec "ne"


Short English summary: he argues that the low version (le français démotique) has a
consistent grammar that is distinct from the high version (le français classique
tardif), and that this creates a 'situation of diglossia.'



Edited by kanewai on 02 April 2015 at 10:44pm

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Medulin
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 Message 22 of 38
02 April 2015 at 11:57pm | IP Logged 
I don't think French is diglossic (it's less diglossic than Czech, Finnish, Brazilian Portuguese, Belgian Dutch or Swiss German), but it may become in a couple of years, due to extreme purism.

English would be diglossic too, if people were forced to write like this:
1. Whom did you meet?
2. It is I.
3. Better than she.

etc.

English belongs to languages which like to modernize their grammar every 10 or so years,
if you want to use WHOM you can, but you can write a perfecty formal letter or an essay without these ''dated'' forms. In formal written French (and German) you are compelled to use forms which are no longer used in speech, this is the first phase of diglossia-in-the-making.

Croatian, just like English and Rioplatense Spanish is very modern(ized), the written tongue is to be close to the way educated people speak home, dated verbal forms, when used, are used ironically or for a humorous effect.

I never learned Croatian grammar at school, and our teachers never corrected our way of using contemporary Croatian in writing. I don't even know how to conjugate verbs in all tenses (since in spoken and written Croatian only PREZENT, PERFEKT and FUTUR are used, and all other tenses are arcaic-sounding...unlike in French, German, Italian etc. if a tense is not used in speech, its usage is not neutral, but marked, and that's why goes out of written use soon as well, otherwise, there would be a gap between a spoken and a written language, a first step to diglossia, which is also called ''shyzoglossia'' divided language, or language schizophrenia.


In non-diglossic languages (like English, Croatian, Rioplatense Spanish)
people never say: ''Our language is so complicated''; ''I speak my language all wrong'', and there are no ''Speak better'' courses for native speakers of the language.

In Brazil, Czech Republic and Indonesia many people think they speak their language wrong, and there are language courses for ''improving one's speech'' (language course for native learners, which is ridiculous).
Some languages to compare:

a) diglossic> Swiss German, Finnish, Estonian, Czech, Brazilian Portuguese, Belgian Dutch
b) might become diglossic in the future> French
c) non-diglossic, accepting language change and incorporating spoken usage soon into the formal written style> English, European Portuguese, Croatian, Macedonian, Slovak, Rioplatense Spanish

Some languages started as non-diglossic (like Indonesian) but thanks to linguistic and social influences (Javanese in the case of Indonesian) have become pretty diglossic.

Great examples of ''abandoned'' diglossia>
1. Bengali (from 1940ies) educated colloquial usage became the new written standard
2. Telugu (from 1970ies) educated colloquial usage became the new written standard
3. Greek (from 1970ies)
4. Argentine Spanish (from 1950ies)
5. Japanese (from 1900)

A key to resolvubg diglossia is bring the spoken (''basilect'') and the written language (''acrolect'') closer, make the intermediate register (''mesolect'') the new standard.

When it is impossible to use the same structure in the writing and in the speech, there is a potential for a diglossic conflict, as in Brazilian Portuguese:

''They found him''

Acharam ele. (L)
Acharam-no. / Eles o acharam (H)


''Get him!''

Peguem ele! (L)
Peguem-no! (H)


in these examples there is no ''compromise'' available that would be used both in natural speech and in writing

Portuguese is the most hated subject in Brazilian schools, and why is that?
It's because students are required to write in a way no 21th century Brazilian speaks,
the H norm is modeled on 19th century European Portuguese grammar (albeit with Brazilianized spelling and vocabulary).

Edited by Medulin on 03 April 2015 at 12:15am

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stelingo
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 Message 23 of 38
03 April 2015 at 12:11am | IP Logged 
Medulin wrote:
 English belongs to languages which like to modernize their grammar
every 10 or so year.



Really? What grammatical modernisations appeared in the last update? I must have missed
it.
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Medulin
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 Message 24 of 38
03 April 2015 at 12:19am | IP Logged 
stelingo wrote:
Medulin wrote:
 English belongs to languages which like to modernize their grammar
every 10 or so year.



Really? What grammatical modernisations appeared in the last update? I must have missed
it.


Going-to-future is being increasingly used instead of will-future (in cases where both are possible/interchangeable).

http://www.ucl.ac.uk/english-usage/projects/verb-phrase/book /tagliamonte.pdf


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