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Koine Greek Translation Discussion Thread

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Sir Lunch-a-lot
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 Message 9 of 28
15 July 2010 at 9:03am | IP Logged 
Question pertaining to Genesis 12:4 in the septuagint: "και επορευθη Αβραμ" - why, if this is translated as an active verb (and Abram went) is the Greek verb passive? After all, one cannot "be went", right? Perhaps I shall post a copy of this query in the Koine discussion thread. Am I missing something here (perhaps this is not a 3rd person aorist passive verb, but something else that looks like one)? Is this something idiomatic?
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JW
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 Message 10 of 28
15 July 2010 at 2:06pm | IP Logged 
No, you are correct ἐπορεύθη is the 3rd Person Singular Aorist Passive Indicative. However, πορεύομαι is a deponent verb. Deponent verbs are "passive in form but active in meaning."

For a similar example, see 2 Tim 4:10.

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Fasulye
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 Message 11 of 28
15 July 2010 at 2:18pm | IP Logged 
JW wrote:
Deponent verbs are "passive in form but active in meaning."


Same as in Latin, where deponent verbs also exist.

Fasulye
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Sir Lunch-a-lot
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 Message 12 of 28
16 July 2010 at 6:26am | IP Logged 
Doh! I should have caught that! I guess for some reason I was thinking that it ought to be in the middle, not passive (since the lexical form would appear as a middle). Thank you for pointing that out.
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Reisender
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 Message 13 of 28
16 July 2010 at 9:42am | IP Logged 
JW wrote:
No, you are correct ἐπορεύθη is the 3rd Person Singular Aorist Passive Indicative. However, πορεύομαι is a deponent verb. Deponent verbs are "passive in form but active in meaning."

For a similar example, see 2 Tim 4:10.

It gets even weirder, if my memory serves me right: There are some deponent verbs which may be active, passive or medium in meaning. And in some tenses, there's no way to tell.
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JW
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 Message 14 of 28
16 July 2010 at 9:28pm | IP Logged 
Here is an interesting linguistic insight that I have come up with:

In John 20:28, the Apostle Thomas called Jesus ο κυριος μου και ο θεος μου. This appears to me to be equal to Κύριος ὁ Θεὸς ἡμῶν in Deut 6:4 of the Septuagint

Thus Thomas is saying that Jesus is יהוה אלהינו(Yahweh Elohenu) as in the Great Shema of Israel: Deut 6:4: Hear, O Israel! The LORD is our God, the LORD is one!

Edited by JW on 16 July 2010 at 9:29pm

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Romanist
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 Message 15 of 28
21 July 2010 at 12:27pm | IP Logged 
JW wrote:
Here is an interesting linguistic insight that I have come up with:

In John 20:28, the Apostle Thomas called Jesus ο κυριος μου και ο θεος μου. This appears to me to be equal to Κύριος ὁ Θεὸς ἡμῶν in Deut 6:4 of the Septuagint

Thus Thomas is saying that Jesus is יהוה אלהינו(Yahweh Elohenu) as in the Great Shema of Israel: Deut 6:4: Hear, O Israel! The LORD is our God, the LORD is one!


I seem to remember reading in my textbook ('Elements of New Testament Greek', by J. Duff) that the word "Κύριος" is always used in Koine Greek in place of "Jehovah" - which is presumably the same as "Yahweh"? (And as we all know, the word "Θεὸς" means "God".)

So yes, the way I would understand this, Thomas is saying something like: "My Jehohvah is my God" or "My Jehovah is the true God", etc.

(However I'm very far from having any expertise in Koine Greek, alas!)


Edited by Romanist on 21 July 2010 at 12:28pm

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JW
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 Message 16 of 28
21 July 2010 at 3:18pm | IP Logged 
Romanist wrote:
"Jehovah" - which is presumably the same as "Yahweh"?


Yes, the original Hebrew is יהוה (YHWH). This is called the "sacred tetragrammaton" from the Greek τετραγράμματον "a word having four letters." Yahweh (YaHWeH) and Jehovah (YeHoWaH) are just different ways of inserting vowel points (Hebrew has no vowels) and the yod can be transliterated as a Y or a J into English and the vav can be transliterated as a W or a V into English.


Edited by JW on 21 July 2010 at 3:28pm



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