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Passive se or impersonal se? - Spanish

  Tags: Passive | Grammar | Spanish
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Cainntear
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 Message 17 of 60
11 July 2010 at 12:45pm | IP Logged 
Impersonal and passive "se"? I was told that there was only one thing -- the "impersonal", which is by nature possessive

Andy E wrote:
I looked at the thread at WordReference and I can't say I'm any the wiser for it. I read the sentence (regardless of whether the pronouns precede puede or follow considerar) as an impersonal construction se puede with a redundant object pronoun la....

...Regardless of that, either flavour - Puede considerársela una tierra de transición and Se la puede considerar una tierra de transición - feel odd, although the latter seems better than the former. I'd prefer to use either of Stuart's suggestions above.

Incidentally, there's no further comment on this in the French version and it's translated there impersonally with on peut.

What about "Se puede considerarla..."...?

The impersonal/passive se would then be clearly the object of poder, which I think is pretty normal.

Don't you have to use it for anything that uses a conjunction or subjunctive -- Se puede decir que... or whatever? Because in these cases the subordinate clause is taking the position of object to the main verb.
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furrykef
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 Message 18 of 60
17 July 2010 at 9:39pm | IP Logged 
Cainntear wrote:
The impersonal/passive se would then be clearly the object of poder, which I think is pretty normal.


Since when does "poder" take an object? ;)


Edited by furrykef on 17 July 2010 at 9:41pm

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Cainntear
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 Message 19 of 60
17 July 2010 at 11:28pm | IP Logged 
furrykef wrote:
Cainntear wrote:
The impersonal/passive se would then be clearly the object of poder, which I think is pretty normal.


Since when does "poder" take an object? ;)

Erm... yes... I see your point.

What I'm getting at though is that that there are plenty of phrases such as "se puede decir que..." and even simply "se puede" with no second verb. I've always assumed from this that the reflexive pronoun attaches to "poder" to describe possibility rather that the main verb, hence my response.

But having seen the wordreference discussion on the matter, my head is now spinning....
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patuco
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 Message 20 of 60
18 July 2010 at 1:22am | IP Logged 
I'm afraid that I can't contribute much in terms of Spanish grammar but I'd like to reiterate that using "la" anywhere in the sentence just sounds plain wrong.
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Raчraч Ŋuɲa
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 Message 21 of 60
05 August 2010 at 2:42pm | IP Logged 
plaidchuck wrote:
In Assmil's Using Spanish lesson 18 about Extremadura I ran into
this phrase: "Puede considerársela una tierra de transición" the translation is simply
"It can be considered a land of transition" (but we all know how dodgy the translations
in that book can be).

I have been wondering if the phrase is using the impersonal "se" or a passive "se". My
first inclination was to say it was impersonal since the direct object pronoun "la" is
used. However I consulted the RAE and my Butt and Benjamin's Grammar which seem to
imply in this case the impersonal wouldn't be used when you assign a DO pronoun (la) to
an inanimate object. While in another case the la could be replaced by "le". Although
the meaning of the phrase is understood, I was just curious if anyone else had some
input to clear this up, just out of grammarian curiosity.

I must admit although I'm fairly advanced in Spanish my knowledge of the passive voice
is extremely lacking; they say native English speakers tend to overuse it but I myself
tend to avoid it. If anyone knows of any resources that could explain it in simpler
terms, it would be appreciated as well.


I'm only intermediate in Spanish, so my opinion could be wrong.

First, true passives use the past participle forms of the verb in both English and
Spanish. So, there is no passive construction here. As a matter of fact, I never
consider "se" as having a passive meaning. "se" has only 2 uses for me, reflexive (DO
and IO) and impersonal (IO) and its possible to analyze it in those lines.

As Impersonal:
By their forms (3rd person) and order (IOs always preceed DOs) "se" (from le) is IO and
"la" DO. Thus the verb "considerar" can be thought of as governing 2 object pronouns,
"se" and "la", and the literal translation in English would be: "[One] is able to
consider it ("se" - Extremadura) a land of transition ("la" - it).".

As Reflexive:
The subject and object of the verb "considerar" is the same referent here. The
reflexive meaning is that of the IO, like the sentence "Juan se lava las manos". Notice
that although "se" is used, this sentence does not mean "John washes himself the hands"
but rather "John washes the hands [to] himself". He is the recipient of the washing he
does to his own hands. The "la" here is the DO, and refers to the object ("una tierra
de transición") that will be considered for the subject (Extremadura). This is called
direct object clitic doubling and is used to clarify that "una tierra de transición" is
a DO and not a subject of the sentence. The "la" here is never translated in English,
so the literal translation would then be: "[It - Extremadura] is able to consider a
land of transition [to] itself." which in English is just queer and not very idiomatic.
A more idiomatic translation yet retaining its reflexive flavour would be: "It is able
to consider itself a land of transition."

Here are similar sentences found in the internet. Notice that the direct object and its
clitic agree in gender:

Corvus sinaloae parece ser genéticamente extremadamente parecido a esta ave, y puede
considerársela la forma occidental de él....
Al mismo tiempo puede considerárselo un método para inducir la consciencia de
.

There is no loismo/laismo here since "lo" and "la" are both DO in these sentences.

Read here some
explanation for uses of "se".

I know I am not fluent yet in Spanish, so I could be wrong here.

==
EDIT: Actually, the reflexive uses the same construction as the impersonal, and their
distinction is whether the subject and the IO are the same referent.

I have since changed the Impersonal to Undergoer "Se" with impersonal "se" as a variant
of undergoer "se". In this case Undergoer "se" can be S,DO and IO.

Also, I have suggested that this is an impersonal "se".



Edited by Raчraч Ŋuɲa on 07 August 2010 at 2:03am

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tractor
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 Message 22 of 60
05 August 2010 at 5:27pm | IP Logged 
I don't think it is the "se" that's causing people trouble here, but the "la".
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Andy E
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 Message 23 of 60
05 August 2010 at 9:04pm | IP Logged 
tractor wrote:
I don't think it is the "se" that's causing people trouble here, but the "la".


Indeed.


Regarding the non-existence of the passive se, I'd be interested to find out what the poster thinks of the following:

se quemaron los bosques para acabar con la plaga

(quoted in section 28.4.1 of B&B which in turn lifted it from the GDLE)

Clearly the trees didn't burn themselves in this instance, so there is an implied but unmentioned agent - hence the passive se.

Edit: typo

Edited by Andy E on 05 August 2010 at 10:42pm

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Raчraч Ŋuɲa
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 Message 24 of 60
07 August 2010 at 12:54am | IP Logged 
Andy E wrote:

Regarding the non-existence of the passive se, I'd be interested to find out
what the poster thinks of the following:

se quemaron los bosques para acabar con la plaga

(quoted in section 28.4.1 of B&B which in turn lifted it from the GDLE)

Clearly the trees didn't burn themselves in this instance, so there is an implied but
unmentioned agent - hence the passive se.


Ok, I've re-read my grammar book and my understanding is that there is still no true
passive "se" but there is a mediopassive "se" distinct from the reflexive "se" and
impersonal "se", although in the third person singular, the impersonal and the
mediopassive "se" are hard to distinguish from the forms of the verb alone.

The difference between the true passive and the mediopassive in English is the form of
the verb used, in that mediopassive verbs are in active voice and passive verbs are in
passive voice with both having the undergoer as subject. Also, mediopassives can be
constructed only for unaccusative intransitives in English:

Spanish: Se cierra la puerta a la una.
True Passive: The door is closed at one o'clock.
Mediopassive(Active): The door closes at one o'clock.
Impersonal(Active): One closes the door at one o'clock.

Your example sentence can be translated as:

True passive: The forests were burnt/burned to end the plague.
Mediopassive(Active): The forests burnt/burned to end the plague.
Impersonal(Active): no such sense since the verb is plural.

Notice that English does not have different forms for past and past participle for
"burn", so that you can't see the difference between the verbs used in a true passive
and a mediopassive apart from the copula.

Since mediopassives are not very productive in English, the first thing that comes to
mind is always to use the true passive to understand the Spanish mediopassive "se",
thus the terminology "passive se".

I said there are only 2 meanings because both Impersonal and Mediopassive can be
subsumed under one Undergoer "se" where the noun phrase can be either the subject or
the object of the verb but both are undergoer in a semantic sense (recipient, theme,
patient).

Edited by Raчraч Ŋuɲa on 07 August 2010 at 1:03am



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