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Passive se or impersonal se? - Spanish

  Tags: Passive | Grammar | Spanish
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Raчraч Ŋuɲa
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 Message 25 of 60
07 August 2010 at 1:17am | IP Logged 
Andy E wrote:
tractor wrote:
I don't think it is the "se" that's causing people
trouble here, but the "la".


Indeed.


I think I mentioned it also that this is a case of double object construction which
also happens in Greek and some Slavic languages, if you google it.

Raчraч Ŋuɲa wrote:
The "la" here is the DO, and refers to the object ("una tierra
de transición") that will be considered for the subject (Extremadura). This is called
direct object clitic doubling and is used to clarify that "una tierra de transición" is
a DO and not a subject of the sentence. The "la" here is never translated in English,
so the literal translation would then be: "[It - Extremadura] is able to consider a
land of transition [to] itself." which in English is just queer and not very idiomatic.
A more idiomatic translation yet retaining its reflexive flavour would be: "It is able
to consider itself a land of transition."

Here are similar sentences found in the internet. Notice that the direct object and its
clitic agree in gender:

Corvus sinaloae parece ser genéticamente extremadamente parecido a esta ave, y puede
considerársela la forma occidental de él....
Al mismo tiempo puede considerárselo un método para inducir la consciencia de
.



This works very much like subject-verb agreement where the person of the subject is
indicated in the conjugation of the verb, thus the subject can be dropped. But there
are instances where the verb conjugation is syncretic or the subject needs to be
stressed, disambiguated, or made explicit where the subject is not dropped. This
happens here as well, but only that this is an object.


Edited by Raчraч Ŋuɲa on 07 August 2010 at 1:19am

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Raчraч Ŋuɲa
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 Message 26 of 60
07 August 2010 at 1:56am | IP Logged 
plaidchuck wrote:
In Assmil's Using Spanish lesson 18 about Extremadura I ran into
this phrase: "Puede considerársela una tierra de transición" the translation is simply
"It can be considered a land of transition" (but we all know how dodgy the translations
in that book can be).

I have been wondering if the phrase is using the impersonal "se" or a passive "se".


Let's look at the characteristics. (1) The verb form doesn't help since in third person
singular both impersonal "se" and mediopassive "se" are identical. (2) there is no
preposition marking the noun phrase since its also inanimate. (3) "puede
considerar" seems like a transitive, so no help as well. Impersonal "se" can accompany
both transitive and intransitive verbs provided there is an implied human agent, while
mediopassive "se" only goes with transitive verbs. (4) But the presence of the "la" for
double object construction makes the noun phrase an object since they agree in gender
and number. And since the verb in a mediopassive "se" agrees with the subject, this is
therefore an impersonal "se". This is the reason I think why "la" is needed to
disambiguate.

Edited by Raчraч Ŋuɲa on 07 August 2010 at 1:59am

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guesto
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 Message 27 of 60
07 August 2010 at 2:47am | IP Logged 
plaidchuck wrote:
In Assmil's Using Spanish lesson 18 about Extremadura I ran into this phrase: "Puede considerársela una tierra de transición" the translation is simply "It can be considered a land of transition" (but we all know how dodgy the translations in that book can be).

I have been wondering if the phrase is using the impersonal "se" or a passive "se". My first inclination was to say it was impersonal since the direct object pronoun "la" is used. However I consulted the RAE and my Butt and Benjamin's Grammar which seem to imply in this case the impersonal wouldn't be used when you assign a DO pronoun (la) to an inanimate object. While in another case the la could be replaced by "le". Although the meaning of the phrase is understood, I was just curious if anyone else had some input to clear this up, just out of grammarian curiosity.

I must admit although I'm fairly advanced in Spanish my knowledge of the passive voice is extremely lacking; they say native English speakers tend to overuse it but I myself tend to avoid it. If anyone knows of any resources that could explain it in simpler terms, it would be appreciated as well.



I think 'la' is referring to Extremadura. Is it a stand alone sentence or did you take it from a passage, in which case Extremadura would be implied from previous sentences?
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mrwarper
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 Message 28 of 60
08 August 2010 at 8:22pm | IP Logged 
Well, it's nice to see to what lengths you guys go to analyze the phrase, but let's try and keep it simple:

¿Can it be 'passive'?

As someone else said, 'passive voice' means someone (the DO: direct object of the corresponding phrase in the active voice) is the subject, and that same someone is being [whatever]ed. Easy to spot. So let's check for past participles... none, ergo it is NOT passive, by the very definition.

So, it should be "impersonal". Shall we check, just in case?

Who is the subject? The verb "Puede" is in the 3rd person, singular, the subject might be Extremadura... ok, wait a minute, your grammar is fine, but let's check the meanings... can a region do something like 'consider things'? So it must be someone else. But who? Anyone who thinks about the region, really. Oh. So... yes, it's impersonal!

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Andy E
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 Message 29 of 60
08 August 2010 at 9:58pm | IP Logged 
mrwarper wrote:
¿Can it be 'passive'?

As someone else said, 'passive voice' means someone (the DO: direct object of the corresponding phrase in the active voice) is the subject, and that same someone is being [whatever]ed. Easy to spot. So let's check for past participles... none, ergo it is NOT passive, by the very definition.


No-one is suggesting this is an example of the passive form constructed by ser + past participle + agent. However, there has been mention of the passive se which seems to be confusing some people.



Edited by Andy E on 08 August 2010 at 9:59pm

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plaidchuck
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 Message 30 of 60
08 August 2010 at 11:01pm | IP Logged 
I was the OP and I believe the consensus here and on WR was that it's an impersonal form, since someone out there is able to consider it "a land of transition". The real question came to be whether the "la" made any sense (and many native speakers have said it doesn't)..

If you check my WR post there is quite a lengthy discussion, of whether the "la" makes any sense at all (or is it laísmo), whether it should be "le" (and if that use is leísmo), etc..

Myself I've come to a couple of conclusions about it: a.) It's impersonal b.) If it seems unusual it may be just that writer's sense of style (or something particular to the region of Spain they are from) c.) Not to be too worried about it. I used to fret about such grammar peculiarities. Now however instead of worrying about them I adapt to them, kind of "letting myself go". I think when you do this the language you are learning comes more "alive" and this is when you make a real push towards fluency.
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mrwarper
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 Message 31 of 60
08 August 2010 at 11:11pm | IP Logged 
Andy E wrote:
No-one is suggesting this is an example of the passive form constructed by ser + past participle + agent. However, there has been mention of the passive se which seems to be confusing some people.


Well, the original poster said
Quote:
I have been wondering if the phrase is using the impersonal "se" or a passive "se"[...]I was just curious if anyone else had some input to clear this up, just out of grammarian curiosity.
which pretty much qualifies as asking if this can be a passive form.

He then said
Quote:
If anyone knows of any resources that could explain it in simpler terms, it would be appreciated as well.
and I tried to really keep it simple, because I've seen really good stuff here, but it seems to complicated.

Anyway, I'd like to ask Plaidchuck how he came to the conclusion that "RAE and my Butt and Benjamin's Grammar [...] seem to imply in this case the impersonal wouldn't be used when you assign a DO pronoun (la) to an inanimate object" because this is clearly not true, I'm doing it right now:

A una triste cosa inanimada (mi cosa, tu cosa, nuestra cosa) puede hacérsele lo que uno quiera, es decir, lo que se quiera: comprarla, venderla, pasarla por la picadora...

or,

¿Qué se puede hacer con una cosa inanimada? Se la puede uno comer, se la puede enterrar, ponerla en una vitrina, or whatever else you might think of...

i.e. could you Plaidchuck please quote the original material that made you think this couldn't be done?

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plaidchuck
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 Message 32 of 60
08 August 2010 at 11:19pm | IP Logged 
mrwarper wrote:

i.e. could you Plaidchuck please quote the original material that made you think this couldn't be done?


Good point, to be honest I must have been confused and I'm not sure quite what I was referencing there. Maybe the fact that it says "le" is usually used in this case.


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