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Common errors vs language evolution

  Tags: Error | History
 Language Learning Forum : General discussion Post Reply
72 messages over 9 pages: 1 2 35 6 7 ... 4 ... 8 9 Next >>
drygramul
Tetraglot
Senior Member
Italy
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 Message 25 of 72
16 November 2013 at 6:14pm | IP Logged 
ScottScheule wrote:
Then I have no idea what you're saying.

You should ask for directions, next time.

Quote:
The only reasonable reading of what you said I can devise is: "The term impoverishment applies because the change is introduced by "foreign common saying.""

No, it's not. The term impoverishment refers to, but not exclusively, those common mistakes the thread OP is referring to. Some of them are grammar mistakes introduced by copying foreign common saying.

Quote:
Your only response is that I misunderstood you. Fine. It would be much easier if you elaborated what you meant rather than just claiming I missed the point.

I don't usually care to elaborate to those who jump in just for the sake of arguing.

Quote:

You did. You blamed the Italian education system and its differing standards for "impoverishing" the language. If that's not equivalent to the claim that the less educated speak worse, then I don't know how else to construe it.

I understand your confusion, even if it's again your fault for just reading quickly two words without caring to get the whole context.
I was talking about minimum standard, I would not expect from compulsory school the kind of training needed for writing a manuscript. And if you feel that's a prerogative of educated people, I think we have two opposite standards. And yes, the mistakes I've pointed out are substantial.

ScottScheule wrote:
Then tell me the point. Because when you blame an impoverishment on the "dumbing down process [that] is a marketing strategy that provides the means to reach every people, and obviously the least common denominator is the ignorant," I'm not sure what else you could be referring to.

The point here was that our consumer lifestyle has made everything readily available to us, and we're now accustomed to laziness in our actions and in our thinking processes too, and whatever concerns intellect. And the language we use reflects this.
See the next link for further reading.

Quote:
he objectionable part of your post was the idea that language is impoverished or dumb-downed by a change. Is that what you're saying? Because that is, to repeat, nonsense. And if that's not what you're saying, then what do you mean by impoverishment?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dumbing_down

Edited by drygramul on 16 November 2013 at 6:15pm

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ScottScheule
Diglot
Senior Member
United States
scheule.blogspot.com
Joined 5024 days ago

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Speaks: English*, Spanish
Studies: Latin, Hungarian, Biblical Hebrew, Old English, Russian, Swedish, German, Italian, French

 
 Message 26 of 72
16 November 2013 at 10:52pm | IP Logged 
I dispute everything you said, particularly the fact that I like to argue. But we can probably shorten the
conversation by just focusing on the crux of the dispute. I asked what you meant by impoverishment and you
linked to the Wikipedia article on Dumbing Down. I know the term--I just deny it applies to the language of
anyone--no language is dumbed down relative to another.

And such is actually totally evident from the very entry you linked. Quote:

"Nonetheless, the term dumbing down is subjective, because what a person considers as a dumbed-down
cultural artefact usually depends upon the taste (value judgement) of the reader, the listener, and the viewer."

Meaning, no doubt you think certain language is dumbed down, just as an educated Roman would be
horrified to see what Italians have done to Cicero's tongue, but it's just a matter of your personal taste. To
repeat, it's not an opinion any linguist would attach any value to. There are languages educated people
speak, languages that use foreign influences, and languages the hoi polloi use--they are all of equal
communicative power. None is impoverished relative to another.
4 persons have voted this message useful



tarvos
Super Polyglot
Winner TAC 2012
Senior Member
China
likeapolyglot.wordpr
Joined 4503 days ago

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 Message 27 of 72
16 November 2013 at 11:09pm | IP Logged 
Quote:
No, it's not. The term impoverishment refers to, but not exclusively, those common
mistakes the thread OP is referring to. Some of them are grammar mistakes introduced by
copying foreign common saying


Mistakes now, maybe completely accepted in 70 years. Impoverishment, or enrichment of the
language by foreign sources?

Your call.

"Impoverishment" is not an acceptable way to describe diglossia.

Edited by tarvos on 16 November 2013 at 11:10pm

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shk00design
Triglot
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Canada
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Speaks: Cantonese*, English, Mandarin
Studies: French

 
 Message 28 of 72
17 November 2013 at 2:16am | IP Logged 
Anybody familiar with Cantonese would know there is a lot of slang words constantly being invented. Many of
these are not commonly used in everyday speech but they make dialogues interesting in many movies from Hong
Kong. The locals think using a lot of slangs on TV and the movies is part of entertainment. A man from Vancouver
Carlos Douh started making Cantonese slangs videos and uploading them on YouTube a few years ago before
moving to Hong Kong.

At one time the proper way to write Chinese in Hong Kong would be to use standard Mandarin even though most
natives in Hong Kong speak only Cantonese. In the 1990s the Internet came and now it is more acceptable for
Hong Kong people to type Chinese the way they speak Cantonese. There are some sounds that are unique to
Cantonese and there is a subset of characters created that is not used in standard Mandarin.

In the Chinese language you would put in a proper classifier in front of a noun the way the French would put the
proper article such as: la voiture, le table, le chien, etc. Instead of using a masculine, feminine or plural article like
in French, a classifier matches the shape or description of the subject such as: 一條河 yītiáohé. 一 means one, 條 is
the classifier for long objects, 河 is for river. The literal translation would be "one long strand of river". The other
day I came across an online post someone who put a classifier in front of the character for "cloud" which is
inappropriate in standard Mandarin but becoming common in Cantonese where people would write the characters
exactly the way they would speak. The word usage was: 一舊雲 yījiùyún. The classifier in standard Mandarin would
be 朵 duǒ, the same classifier for a flower and objects that looks like an earlobe. In my mother's generation you
would write 一朵雲 (in standard Mandarin) instead of 一舊雲 (the way you say it in Cantonese). In Cantonese you
would pronounce 一舊雲 as jat1 gau6 wan4. The use of 舊 in the place of 朵 was considered improper Chinese
writing but becoming more acceptable online.

Edited by shk00design on 17 November 2013 at 2:19am

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yong321
Groupie
United States
yong321.freeshe
Joined 5338 days ago

80 posts - 104 votes 
Studies: Spanish

 
 Message 29 of 72
17 November 2013 at 7:27pm | IP Logged 
shk00design's message reminds me of one thing I have observed. For lack of a proper name, let me call it linguistic authority. If a language is spoken as a primary language in a certain area, that area has the linguistic authority on its evolution or any minor change, in grammar, vocabulary etc. Once I saw an advertisement in Shanghai subway "I chocolate you!". I thought it was horrible English and not funny at all. On the other hand, if this sentence were to appear in London or anywhere English is the primary language, my feeling would be different even though I would still consider it as something hard to accept. But I may think some native English speakers probably started to use "chocolate" as a verb, which may or may not survive. In short, whether an error evolves into an accepted form depends on, among other things, whether this error occurs in an area with the linguistic authority or is made by the author having this authority. (Note: this authority has nothing to do with any governing body, whether it be a government agency or a non-profit organization.)
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Ari
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Norway
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 Message 30 of 72
18 November 2013 at 7:07am | IP Logged 
yong321 wrote:
shk00design's message reminds me of one thing I have observed. For lack of a proper name, let me call it linguistic authority.

This is interesting! It provides an answer to a question I've been thinking about for a long time: How come emigrant populations use more consrvative language than that which is used in the "heartland" of the language? Taiwanese Mandarin is more conservative than Chinese Mandarin, American English more conservative than British English, Latin American Spanish more than European Spanish, Finland Swedish more than Swedish Swedish, and if I interpret some of the posts in this thread right, the same goes for Portugese in Brazil vs. Portugal.
1 person has voted this message useful



Medulin
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Croatia
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 Message 31 of 72
18 November 2013 at 4:34pm | IP Logged 
Colloquial Brazilian Portuguese is more ''conservative'' but the official grammar is that of 19th century Continental Portuguese (when the Portuguese left) although with a Brazilianized spelling and pronunciation (Brazilian Portuguese and Continental Portuguese are like Bokmaal and Danish, it is Danish/Lusitan pronunciation what has changed a lot in the last 100 years). In Norwegian Bokmaal, masculine forms like boken, kvinnen, solen (instead of feminine boka, kvinna, sola) are regarded as conservative, even though the feminine gender (boka, kvinna, sola) is linguistically older in Norwegian than the Denmark-imported 2 gender system. This means, linguistically older forms are not necessarily more conservative.

15th century Portuguese and colloquial Brazilian Portuguese: [eu] me chamo Pedro (my name is Pedro)
modern European Portuguese and conservative/written Brazilian Portuguese: [eu] chamo-me Pedro (my name is Pedro)

15th century Norwegian, colloquial Norwegian and Nynorsk: dronninga kasta boka i elva
19th century Dano-Norwegian and conservative/written Bokmaal of today: dronningen kastet boken i elven

''vart'' in Swedish and (Western) Norwegian is linguistically old (that is conservative), but sociolinguistically informal (not conservative)
(it is acceptable, and preferred in written Nynorsk tho')

Edited by Medulin on 18 November 2013 at 4:50pm

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Chung
Diglot
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 Message 32 of 72
18 November 2013 at 4:47pm | IP Logged 
Ari wrote:
yong321 wrote:
shk00design's message reminds me of one thing I have observed. For lack of a proper name, let me call it linguistic authority.

This is interesting! It provides an answer to a question I've been thinking about for a long time: How come emigrant populations use more consrvative language than that which is used in the "heartland" of the language? Taiwanese Mandarin is more conservative than Chinese Mandarin, American English more conservative than British English, Latin American Spanish more than European Spanish, Finland Swedish more than Swedish Swedish, and if I interpret some of the posts in this thread right, the same goes for Portugese in Brazil vs. Portugal.


In dialectal geography there is a tendency for change to radiate to the periphery although this tendency can be overriden by other factors such as standardization, population movement or cultural influence of speakers living on the edge of the speech community.

See here (especially under the diagram) for an example of linguistic innovation moving toward the periphery of the speech community rather than the other way around even though the latter presentation is politically convenient if not linguistically unsound.


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