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Why didn’t Korean and Japanese become tonal?

  Tags: Korean | Japanese
 Language Learning Forum : Philological Room Post Reply
38 messages over 5 pages: 1 2 35  Next >>
Leurre
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 Message 25 of 38
25 January 2011 at 2:10am | IP Logged 
People, we're forgetting that Middle Japanese and Korean actually were tonal languages,
with
3 tones (for Korean at least).

I would think that a more interesting question would be to ask why they abandoned their
tones.

Edited by Leurre on 25 January 2011 at 2:10am

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akprocks
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 Message 26 of 38
25 January 2011 at 2:41am | IP Logged 
Simple answer: a tonal Japanese language would be fairly close to impossible to learn
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OneEye
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 Message 27 of 38
25 January 2011 at 2:57am | IP Logged 
Leurre, do you have a source? I'd be interested to read up on it a bit and I have some extra time in the
library tomorrow.
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Leurre
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 Message 28 of 38
25 January 2011 at 3:07am | IP Logged 
OneEye: not being incredibly interested in Middle Japanese and Middle Korean I have not
researched this much, but it came up in one of my readings last semester for school.

The person who said it was Ho-min Sohn, a professor of Korean linguistics at the
University of Hawaii

For Korean at any rate, it actually seems to be the subject of some contention (reveals a
quick google search by yours truly). If you read Korean or know someone who does
http://www.gugeosa.or.kr/paper/07/0702. pdf can provide a little insight I think.
Not as black and white as I thought I guess
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Leurre
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 Message 29 of 38
25 January 2011 at 3:20am | IP Logged 
Oh right I forgot another thing, the reason, in Korean, that people more or less knew
this is that in the text explaining the creation of 한글 (訓民正音), King Sejong
explained the function of the one and to little dots on the side of some characters,
indicating whether the pitch was to be falling or rising, or... none at all, or something
like that. Those dots have since disappeared from 한글 though
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OneEye
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 Message 30 of 38
25 January 2011 at 3:42am | IP Logged 
Interesting, thanks! For the record, I found this while Googling (I wasn't where I could Google when I wrote my previous post):

http://books.google.com/books?id=NN-yIdLOkCoC&lpg=PA315&ots= qI27kV8Coq&dq=was%20middle%20korean%20ever%20tonal&pg=PA315# v=onepage&q&f=false

I generally take S. Robert Ramsey as a reliable source, but that's for Chinese linguistics (his book, The Languages of China, is fantastic). I'll see what else I can dig up tomorrow.
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Arekkusu
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 Message 31 of 38
25 January 2011 at 5:01am | IP Logged 
Leurre wrote:
People, we're forgetting that Middle Japanese and Korean actually were tonal languages,
with
3 tones (for Korean at least).

I would think that a more interesting question would be to ask why they abandoned their
tones.

Middle Japanese was not tonal, which is why we forgot about it.
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Leurre
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 Message 32 of 38
25 January 2011 at 6:01am | IP Logged 
I'm drawing on what I read, from the above professor.
If it's like you say Arekusu, then you did not 'forget' about it, since it would be
impossible to forget something that did not exist in the first place ;)


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