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Is the verb "to be" irregular in your...

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matthewmathieu
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 Message 1 of 41
09 March 2011 at 6:33am | IP Logged 

Hello, forum browsers,

I am very interested to know more about the verb "to be" in your native language. In all of the European
languages I am familiar with, it is an irregular verb (English, Spanish, French, Russian, Serbo-Croatian, Icelandic).
In some languages, such as Russian, it is completely absent in the present tense, but appears in the past or
future.

My question is: does "to be" have irregular conjugation in your native language, or in languages you've studied?
Or does it disappear to some extent, like in Russian? In what languages is "to be" conjugated regularly, and
would those languages form the clear minority (of the relatively well-known languages, that is)? Does anyone
have experience with languages of smaller indigenous communities, and if so are any of their languages' verbs
for "to be" also irregular?

This question pertains to research I am doing for graduate school, and I thank you in advance for your response!

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ellasevia
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 Message 2 of 41
09 March 2011 at 6:44am | IP Logged 
In none of the natural languages that I have knowledge of is the verb "to be" completely regular, not even in
Swahili or Japanese where there are only a handful of irregular verbs (Swahili has two irregulars and
Japanese has three, I think). Note that I said natural languages though, because the verb "to be" in
Esperanto (esti) is completely regular, but as Esperanto is a constructed language and designed to be
regular, I don't think it counts.

Edited by ellasevia on 09 March 2011 at 8:08am

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Raчraч Ŋuɲa
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 Message 3 of 41
09 March 2011 at 7:09am | IP Logged 
Both Tagalog and Bikol do not possess the verb "to be". I think most Austronesian languages don't have a copula, like Maori or Tongan. Malay seems to be an exception as the two copulas there does not conjugate. I think Mandarin has an invariable copula too.

Edited by Raчraч Ŋuɲa on 09 March 2011 at 7:16am

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jdmoncada
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 Message 4 of 41
09 March 2011 at 7:24am | IP Logged 
From my experience, the verbs that are the most irregular are the ones that are most often used. So following that logic, "to be" would be very irregular in all languages, no matter which language family of origin.

I would honestly be surprised if you found a natural language anywhere in which it was regular.
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ReneeMona
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 Message 5 of 41
09 March 2011 at 7:44am | IP Logged 
What about creoles?

As far as I know, all verbs in Papiamentu are regular, in fact they're not conjugated at all:

Mi ta - I am
Bo ta - you are
É ta - he/she/it is
Nos ta - we are
Bosnang ta - you (plural) are
Nan ta - they are


Edited by ReneeMona on 09 March 2011 at 8:09am

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zekecoma
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 Message 6 of 41
09 March 2011 at 2:03pm | IP Logged 
German is irregular

Ich bin - I am
Du bist / Sie sind - You are
Er, Sie, Es - He, She, It
Wir sind - We are
Ihr seid - You (plural) are
sie sind - They are

It all depends on the case really. These are for the nominative case.

Edited by zekecoma on 09 March 2011 at 2:05pm

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Solfrid Cristin
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 Message 7 of 41
09 March 2011 at 2:30pm | IP Logged 
ReneeMona wrote:
What about creoles?

As far as I know, all verbs in Papiamentu are regular, in fact they're not conjugated at all:

Mi ta - I am
Bo ta - you are
É ta - he/she/it is
Nos ta - we are
Bosnang ta - you (plural) are
Nan ta - they are


But is it regular also when compared to the infinitive? In Norwegian we do not have conjugations either, but "to be" would still be considered an irregular verb, since the infinitiv is "å være" and the present is "er".

Å være

Jeg er
Du er
Han er
Vi er
Dere er
De er

To campare it to a regular verb vi have

Å lære

Jeg lærer
Du lærer
Han lærer
Vi lærer
Dere lører
De lærer
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ReneeMona
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 Message 8 of 41
09 March 2011 at 2:37pm | IP Logged 
Solfrid Cristin wrote:
But is it regular also when compared to the infinitive?


Yes, because the infinitive is also "ta". :)


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