Bao Diglot Senior Member Germany tinyurl.com/pe4kqe5 Joined 5584 days ago 2256 posts - 4046 votes Speaks: German*, English Studies: French, Spanish, Japanese, Mandarin
| Message 17 of 41 10 March 2011 at 2:55pm | IP Logged |
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=were
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=was
That doesn't yet explain the German forms sein, sind, seid, but I think it does explain the other forms in German as well.
Edited by Bao on 10 March 2011 at 2:57pm
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cymrotom Tetraglot Groupie United States cymrympls.blogspot.c Joined 4855 days ago 56 posts - 60 votes Speaks: English*, German, Mandarin, Welsh
| Message 18 of 41 10 March 2011 at 8:13pm | IP Logged |
I believe "bod" does show up in modern Welsh as in "Dw i'n meddwl mod i'n cywir" as would be translated as "that I am" or "that I to be." Used with other persons it would be the same form (with mutations, of course), e.g. "Mae o'n deud wrtha i fod o'n sal."
Cainntear wrote:
Back to the original question (and on a related note)
Celtic languages (or at least Gaelic, Irish and Welsh)
The verb "to be" is the most irregular verb in the languages.
There is a historic equivalent distinction between ser-like and estar-like "to be".
The estar-like is the only verb to conjugate for simple present -- present constructions in Celtic languages therefore rely on the progressive aspect.
The ser-like "to be" is vanishing. In Scottish Gaelic is only takes two forms, and often disappears before this/that, and is implied in question words. In Welsh it has vanished almost entirely, never appearing explicitly in a basic sentence -- you can only see its presence by its effect on word order. In Welsh it is only explicitly used (AFAIK) in answer to yes/no questions. |
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Edited by cymrotom on 10 March 2011 at 8:14pm
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christian Senior Member United States Joined 5068 days ago 111 posts - 135 votes Speaks: English* Studies: Spanish, Japanese, German
| Message 19 of 41 10 March 2011 at 11:06pm | IP Logged |
cymrotom wrote:
I'm unfamiliar with Spanish, could you list the ser and estar-like Welsh verbs?
Cainntear wrote:
Back to the original question (and on a related note)
Celtic languages (or at least Gaelic, Irish and Welsh)
The verb "to be" is the most irregular verb in the languages.
There is a historic equivalent distinction between ser-like and estar-like "to be".
The estar-like is the only verb to conjugate for simple present -- present constructions in Celtic languages
therefore rely on the progressive aspect.
The ser-like "to be" is vanishing. In Scottish Gaelic is only takes two forms, and often disappears before
this/that, and is implied in question words. In Welsh it has vanished almost entirely, never appearing explicitly
in a basic sentence -- you can only see its presence by its effect on word order. In Welsh it is only explicitly used
(AFAIK) in answer to yes/no questions. |
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ser - to be
Yo soy - I am
Tú eres - You are
Él/Ella/Ud es - He/She/You (formal)
Nosotros somos - We are
Ellos/Ellas/Uds son - They/You (plural informal and formal, except in Spain where it is formal)
Vosotros sois - You (plural informal, Spain) are
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Abdalan Triglot Senior Member Brazil abdalan.wordpress.co Joined 4864 days ago 120 posts - 194 votes Speaks: Portuguese*, French, English Studies: German
| Message 20 of 41 10 March 2011 at 11:36pm | IP Logged |
Português
Ser - To Be (not vanishing in Portuguese, of course)
Presente
Eu sou - I am
Tu és - you are
Você é - you are
Ele / Ela é - he / she / it is
Nós somos - we are
Vós sois - you are (plural) - Very formal
Vocês são - you are (plural)
Eles / Elas são - they are
Estar - To Be
Presente
Eu estou - I am
Tu estás - you are
Você está - you are
Ele / Ela está - he / she / it is
Nós estamos - we are
Vós estais - you are (plural) - Very formal
Vocês estão - you are (plural)
Eles / Elas estão - they are
Edited by Abdalan on 10 March 2011 at 11:49pm
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Cainntear Pentaglot Senior Member Scotland linguafrankly.blogsp Joined 5829 days ago 4399 posts - 7687 votes Speaks: Lowland Scots, English*, French, Spanish, Scottish Gaelic Studies: Catalan, Italian, German, Irish, Welsh
| Message 21 of 41 10 March 2011 at 11:57pm | IP Logged |
[OK, neither of the Welsh speakers here speak Spanish, so here's a quick explanation of ser vs estar:
"ser" is to be in a permanent sense: "he is sick" with "ser" would mean he has a serious long-term illness. (Alternatively, he's a sicko.)
"estar" describes someone's current state (estar and state both derive from the same Latin word). "He is sick" with "estar" means he's got a cold or the measles or something.)
cymrotom wrote:
I believe "bod" does show up in modern Welsh as in "Dw i'n meddwl mod i'n cywir" as would be translated as "that I am" or "that I to be." Used with other persons it would be the same form (with mutations, of course), e.g. "Mae o'n deud wrtha i fod o'n sal." |
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"bod" is the "estar-like" to be. It's the verbal noun equivalent to "dw" etc.
The "ser-like" to be is a bit different.
As I say it's almost always missing -- it occurs where a noun comes before the verb.
Eg Huw yw e. In the other Celtic languages (well, the Goidelic languages anyway), there's still a verb at the start. The Irish is Is, and in Scottish Gaelic this is often just a short 'S attached to the start of the next word.
Huw yw e translates word-for-word to Hugh that-be he, but originally was Is Hugh that-be he.
We can tell there's an "invisible verb" there by the fact that the verb doesn't change in a question -- Gareth yw e? -- which is unusual. If the verb doesn't change, it can't be the main verb. This is why a "fronted" question like this is answered with "ie" and "nag e" -- we are answering the "invisible ser", rather than the "visible estar".
Edited by Cainntear on 10 March 2011 at 11:57pm
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Leurre Bilingual Pentaglot Senior Member United StatesRegistered users can see my Skype Name Joined 5243 days ago 219 posts - 372 votes Speaks: French*, English*, Korean, Haitian Creole, SpanishC2 Studies: Japanese
| Message 22 of 41 11 March 2011 at 12:11am | IP Logged |
Haitian Creole is also regular
Mwen ye
Ou ye
Li ye
nou ye
ou ye
yo ye
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Envinyatar Diglot Senior Member Guatemala Joined 5354 days ago 147 posts - 240 votes Speaks: Spanish*, English Studies: Modern Hebrew
| Message 23 of 41 11 March 2011 at 9:34pm | IP Logged |
It seems Jamaican and "Pirate" are regular too:
http://img862.imageshack.us/img862/6382/cce8d4d213334fcf8e9c 765.jpg
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Cainntear Pentaglot Senior Member Scotland linguafrankly.blogsp Joined 5829 days ago 4399 posts - 7687 votes Speaks: Lowland Scots, English*, French, Spanish, Scottish Gaelic Studies: Catalan, Italian, German, Irish, Welsh
| Message 24 of 41 12 March 2011 at 2:12am | IP Logged |
Jamaican is a creole.
Papiamentu and Haitian are also creoles, and their verbs are not irregular because there is no conjugation whatsoever in Papiamentu and Haitian. "irregular" and "regular" are labels applied to conjugations. A language without conjugations has neither regular verbs nor irregular ones. Jamaican Patois is the same -- tense is dealt with by particles, not conjugations. There are no irregular or regular verbs in Patwa.
As for "pirate", there is no such thing.
The stereotype for the so-called "pirate" is Hampshire English (England's most important ports historically were Portsmouth and Southampton).
Hampshire English maintained a distinction between "be" and "is" longer than most dialects of English (equivalent to ser/estar in Spanish). But both "be" and "is" were irregular when conjugated for tense.
Edited by Cainntear on 12 March 2011 at 2:16am
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