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B/V differentiation in Spanish

  Tags: Phonetics | Spanish
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Марк
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 Message 17 of 32
11 March 2012 at 9:40am | IP Logged 
mrwarper wrote:
tractor wrote:
mrwarper wrote:
If you pronounce /mizmo/ it can
sound weird.

I've heard Mexicans pronunce it that way.

I've heard Mexicans pronounce the weirdest things, but not that one. Different Mexicans I
guess. I distinctly remember Salma Hayek commented after someone mocked her that she
didn't speak like that ('sssi yo no hablo asssí'), proving that she actually did
:)

s and z are allophones in Spanish, so you might not notice that.
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mrwarper
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 Message 18 of 32
11 March 2012 at 1:22pm | IP Logged 
Марк wrote:
mrwarper wrote:
... If you pronounce /mizmo/ it can
sound weird.

s and z are allophones in Spanish, so you might not notice that.

As I also said, if the s is voiced for just a split second it will go unnoticed (the recurrent voice chords timing problem). If the /s/ is fully voiced becoming /z/ it will be immediately spotted as either some accent feature or mispronunciation.

/s/ and /z/ are not allophones in Spanish. Bad dubbers will make every foreign accent by changing their /s/s to /z/s. Because there's no /z/ in Spanish this won't create confusion, but it's not an acceptable way to pronounce any variety of Spanish I know. /s/ and /z/ may or may not be allophones depending on position, tops.

smallwhite wrote:
My bookmarks show...
Wikipedia - Spanish Phonology
"The phonemes /θ/, /s/, and /f/ become voiced before voiced consonants as in ..."

And it keeps on saying
Quote:
There is a certain amount of free variation in this so that jazmín can be pronounced [xaθˈmĩn] or [xaðˈmĩn].

which is the key.

However, it goes on to say
Quote:
a variety of other realizations are also possible. So the clusters -bt- and -pt- in the words obtener and optimista are pronounced exactly the same way

which is wrong. Some people may get away with it because there are no such things as "optener" or "obtimista", but not everyone pronounces -bt- ad -pt- the same, even in those words. Same goes for the -dm-/-tm- and -cd-/-gd- pairs they mention.
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zenmonkey
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 Message 19 of 32
11 March 2012 at 11:33pm | IP Logged 
In Mexico we do pronounce it /mizmo/. /mihmo/ sounds weird to us.
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espejismo
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 Message 20 of 32
23 March 2012 at 3:14pm | IP Logged 
I definitely hear something like miZmo in this part of the song performed by Lucía Méndez:
"desde ahora mismo"

She re-recorded that song like 20 years later, but the same part sounds differently to me.

Is it just me, or did she modify her pronunciation of mismo?!

Edited by espejismo on 23 March 2012 at 3:15pm

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mrwarper
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 Message 21 of 32
26 March 2012 at 1:16am | IP Logged 
OK; I finally got round to watching it (damn you, YouTube! don't you know HTML5/webM is the way to go?!?)

espejismo wrote:
I definitely hear something like miZmo in this part of the song performed by Lucía Méndez:
"desde ahora mismo"


More or less. Something halfway /s/ and /z/ in espejismo and mismo, I would say -- more like /mizsmo/

Quote:
She re-recorded that song like 20 years later, but the same part sounds differently to me.


This time she says "espejizsmo" the same way, but definitely /miSmo/ a few seconds later.

Quote:
Is it just me, or did she modify her pronunciation of mismo?!


"modify" is the key word here. Real world pronunciation is how an idealized sound model is executed, and that is bound to be at least slightly different every time, even if you are extremely careful when doing it. So, did she sound different? Yes. Did she intend to? I doubt it very much.

As we all know here, there is no /z/ in Spanish, and I think that is why we Spanish speakers don't care a lot about properly devoicing whatever /s/s come our way. Only consistent repetitions of certain patterns (partial voicing of /s/s, slipping too many full /z/s into speech) may (or may not) let us know that a speaker is from another Spanish speaking community, a foreign speaker, etc. Mere low-frequency, random voicing of /s/s will go unnoticed or ignored for the most part, especially if it's just partial, because in Spanish such pronunciation 'accidents' make no difference.
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jimmybutton
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 Message 22 of 32
27 March 2012 at 3:18am | IP Logged 
I read once that the /v/ in Spanish should be pronounced like a /b/ with your lips, so I
did so until my friend from Mexico told me that they should be two distinct sounds. He
clearly pronounced his /v/'s.
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mrwarper
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 Message 23 of 32
27 March 2012 at 3:33am | IP Logged 
Officially, they're pronounced the same, but many Spanish speakers don't agree with that, though. Your Mexican friend is not alone.

To me it kind of makes sense (two sounds = two letters), but if you have a look at historical texts you'll see they're often mixed. It would be a modern matter of rationalization rather than recovering historical features that got lost. The same goes for u and v in some places.

Edit: from Ari's comment below I think I need to clarify (or get some sleep :) b and v pronunciations were never clearly separated in Spanish. If we finally get to pronounce them differently some day it will be another late victory of logic.

Edited by mrwarper on 27 March 2012 at 7:15am

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Ari
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 Message 24 of 32
27 March 2012 at 7:00am | IP Logged 
mrwarper wrote:
To me it kind of makes sense (two sounds = two letters), but if you have a look at historical texts you'll see they're often mixed.

Heck, you can look at modern Spanish words and see the historical mixing. Comparing with French tells me that "beber" was probably once "bever" (like in English "beverage") and "caballo" was probably "cavallo" (like in English "cavalry").

Edited by Ari on 27 March 2012 at 7:01am



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