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English whom

  Tags: Morphology | English
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beano
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 Message 1 of 63
18 December 2013 at 9:50am | IP Logged 
The word "whom" has pretty much vanished from everday English speech and even in written communication there is a tendency to avoid it, unless the message is highly formal or the writer is a grammar buff.

For example, there is a thread on General Discussion entitled "Whom would meet if you could". It would never even cross my mind to use whom here, I would simply use "who". Similarly, I would say "who did you go with" rather than "with whom did you go"

Do people in non-English speaking countries get drilled in the difference between who and whom? I guess it helps if your native language also has a similar concept.

Strangely, in German I have no problem employing wer/wen/wem correctly but I learned this as a series of rules, whereas with English I have simply been guided by the flow.

Did English once have a dative case and "whom" is some sort of hangover?

Edited by beano on 18 December 2013 at 9:52am

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Elexi
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 Message 2 of 63
18 December 2013 at 10:18am | IP Logged 
Whom is a remnant of the Old English dative case , but it also has taken on the
functions of the OE accusative case - which is perhaps why it sometimes appears odd.


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patrickwilken
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 Message 3 of 63
18 December 2013 at 10:48am | IP Logged 
There is a nice discussion here:

http://english.stackexchange.com/questions/13983/is-it-corre ct-to-say-that-english-has-the-dative-case

Him and Her are also remnants of the dative in English.
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Марк
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 Message 4 of 63
18 December 2013 at 11:03am | IP Logged 
beano wrote:


For example, there is a thread on General Discussion entitled "Whom would meet if you could". It would never even cross my mind to use whom here, I would simply use "who". Similarly, I would say "who did you go with" rather than "with whom did you go"

Do people in non-English speaking countries get drilled in the difference between who and whom? I guess it helps if your native language also has a similar concept.


No, we don't. We were taught to use only "who", while "whom" was only mentioned as possible variant.
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patrickwilken
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 Message 5 of 63
18 December 2013 at 11:19am | IP Logged 
Марк wrote:

No, we don't. We were taught to use only "who", while "whom" was only mentioned as possible variant.


Why would you? It's probably a subtle C2 level distinction now in English.

To say "For who the bell tolls" sounds wrong, "for whom the bell tolls" sounds correct, but who (whom?) really cares?

Edited by patrickwilken on 18 December 2013 at 11:20am

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tarvos
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 Message 6 of 63
18 December 2013 at 11:29am | IP Logged 
Who cares. Whom is only for objects.

For whom the bell tolls is a fixed expression and thus requires whom.

Edited by tarvos on 18 December 2013 at 11:29am

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patrickwilken
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 Message 7 of 63
18 December 2013 at 11:34am | IP Logged 
tarvos wrote:
Who cares. Whom is only for objects.


Like in "To whom did you give the gift?".

Sorry my grammar is weak. I am not sure what you mean by "objects".

Edited by patrickwilken on 18 December 2013 at 11:38am

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Ogrim
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 Message 8 of 63
18 December 2013 at 2:59pm | IP Logged 
I think tarvos refers to the grammatical term as in direct object, indirect object, as opposed to the subject.

My school teacher insisted a lot on us using the correct form of "who" when we wrote English, so I still write things like "Whom did you meet yesterday?" I guess that makes me either old-fashioned or pedantic.


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