Register  Login  Active Topics  Maps  

Lack of Noun Gender in English

  Tags: Gender | English
 Language Learning Forum : Specific Languages Post Reply
126 messages over 16 pages: << Previous 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 ... 13 ... 15 16 Next >>
Chung
Diglot
Senior Member
Joined 6961 days ago

4228 posts - 8259 votes 
20 sounds
Speaks: English*, French
Studies: Polish, Slovak, Uzbek, Turkish, Korean, Finnish

 
 Message 97 of 126
23 December 2013 at 2:39pm | IP Logged 
Stolan wrote:
I get that, but is it possible to also discuss some other topics concerning gender? One of the biggest questions is
what leads to gender? Noun classes, but what leads to noun classes? Perhaps cultural association. Why did some
Amazon Rainforest languages, Native American, Caucasian, African languages, Semetic, or PIE evolve such while
many Asian languages, Uralic, Turkic, and such never did? And the tendency to slowly lose one gender or so in
Indo-Euro languages. 3 genders down to 2 is common and no gender may happen to y'all language as well.


You're not the first one to ask...

Building more native-like gender system?
Gender articles for nouns - why?
Gender in languages
Languages without Gender?
Origin of Inflection/Gender
4 persons have voted this message useful



Henkkles
Triglot
Senior Member
Finland
Joined 4058 days ago

544 posts - 1141 votes 
Speaks: Finnish*, English, Swedish
Studies: Russian

 
 Message 98 of 126
24 December 2013 at 3:02pm | IP Logged 
It never fails to baffle me that people would assume all languages save for a few exceptions would have grammatical gender.
3 persons have voted this message useful





emk
Diglot
Moderator
United States
Joined 5337 days ago

2615 posts - 8806 votes 
Speaks: English*, FrenchB2
Studies: Spanish, Ancient Egyptian
Personal Language Map

 
 Message 99 of 126
27 December 2013 at 10:49pm | IP Logged 
s_allard wrote:
...
I want a doctor who know what s/he is doing.
I want a doctor who knows what they are doing.

The last sentence is quite popular and seems to be the best solution although it does do the bit of violence to the number agreement system. But it seems to be gender-less.

For those who are interested in this sort of thing, I highly recommend the Wikipedia article on Singular they. It has quite a few quotes showing that this form has existed for centuries:

Quote:
There's not a man I meet but doth salute me / As if I were their well-acquainted friend — Shakespeare, The Comedy of Errors, Act IV, Scene 3 (1594)

"It can't be true what the girls at the Rectory said, that her mother was an opera-dancer—"
"A person can't help their birth," Rosalind replied with great liberality. — Thackeray, Vanity Fair (1848)

So when some English speakers decided to avoid gendered pronouns, singular "they" naturally presented itself. It's always easier to "bend" a language in a direction where it has some existing flexibility.

And this process hasn't stopped. One linguist—I think it was Pullman—pointed out that few modern English speakers would look twice at a sentence like "A pregnant student should talk to their guidance counselor about scheduling options." And of course, there are people who are comfortable with neither "he" nor "she", and who would really like people to use other singular pronouns. But in practice, it's hard to introduce a new pronoun like "sie" or "ey" into the language. And so what often happens is that "they" becomes a fully singular pronoun for a specific individual: "Sam is bringing their car tonight" instead of either "Sam is bringing zer car tonight" or "Sam is bringing eir car tonight". So singular "they" is one point where English will bend, and bend, and bend…

s_allard wrote:
Just as in English, social change within the professions and in general has forced speakers of French to deal with this of sexism in language. The solution is complicated.

One interesting approach I've seen is to change the agreement rule used in sentences like the following:

Quote:
Jean et Renée sont très indépendents.

According to standard French grammar, indépendents should be masculine, because Jean's a male, and therefore his gender takes precedence over Renée's. But French linguists have observed that native speakers will often say:

Quote:
Jean et Renée sont très indépendentes.

…because Renée is the referent closest to adjective. As with singular "they" in English, this possibility is latent in French. And indeed, I've seen French feminists argue that the second version of this sentence is preferable, or at least that it should no longer be considered an error.

There's another interesting possibility in the French language: The use of elle for men. Any reader of military novels will have probably noticed that male sentinels are grammatically feminine:

Quote:
Une sentinelle japonaise arpentait le tablier.… Elle avait négligemment balayé la rivière avec une torche électrique. (Le Pont de la rivière Kwaï, Pierre Boulle)

This also happens with une personne and une victime, both of which will override biological gender.

Of course, neither of these wrinkles in the French gender system would allow someone to write a gender-neutral job advertisement. But if anyone wants to modify the rules of gender in French, they're probably going to have to begin by exploiting the possibilities that already exist.

However, as a non-native speaker, I strongly prefer to follow the advice of native speakers in these matters.

Edited by emk on 27 December 2013 at 10:51pm

3 persons have voted this message useful



Serpent
Octoglot
Senior Member
Russian Federation
serpent-849.livejour
Joined 6402 days ago

9753 posts - 15779 votes 
4 sounds
Speaks: Russian*, English, FinnishC1, Latin, German, Italian, Spanish, Portuguese
Studies: Danish, Romanian, Polish, Belarusian, Ukrainian, Croatian, Slovenian, Catalan, Czech, Galician, Dutch, Swedish

 
 Message 100 of 126
27 December 2013 at 11:47pm | IP Logged 
Thanks for the colour-coding, emk! Much more clear like that to me :P
1 person has voted this message useful



1e4e6
Octoglot
Senior Member
United Kingdom
Joined 4095 days ago

1013 posts - 1588 votes 
Speaks: English*, French, Spanish, Portuguese, Norwegian, Dutch, Swedish, Italian
Studies: German, Danish, Russian, Catalan

 
 Message 101 of 126
28 December 2013 at 12:18am | IP Logged 
I look back at my old English grammar, vocabulary, any academic books to pass exams
regarding vocabulary, and I notice a very glaring difference: the books show the
vocabulary with no article, which I suppose makes sense since "the" is the only one
possible for a definite, both singular and plural, but therein lies a problem for
Anglophones. The training and accustomisation to learn vocabulary in English is only
one word instead of in French and Spanish books: la voiture, le livre, l'assiette, etc.
I remember some of my foreign language books have stated that native Anglophones should
internalise the article for each new word in gendered languages, but it is completely
unintuitive for an Anglophone, because in their own language, to learn a list of words
is as such:

book
desk
television
door
house

But not:

the book
the desk
the television
the door
the house

since the latter is fairly redundant in English.

So when one speaks in English, and tries to remember a new noun, the process follows
for e.g., moon in "The moon shines tonight", the first step is the placeholder "the",
"The..." then recall the word, "...moon shines tonight". But in a gendered language one
has no "the" placeholder", i.e. a pause for a long time and a long thought about "Is it
le or la? Is it el or la? Is it o or a? Is it
il, lo, or la? Is it het or de?" And then the even
more complicated, as mentioned earlier, adjectivial agreement, as well as the
possessive agreement, and indefinite article agreement wherewith to concern oneself.

The only article inflection is probably "a" to "an", but this definitely does not
require memorisation. I do not think many people learning English vocabulary spend
inordinate amounts of time trying to remember if the indefinite article of a noun must
be "a" or "an", i.e. trying to memorise "an apple" instead of "a apple", which is
completely different from French "un livre" and "une maison".

When my French was very basic, in 2002 on holiday in Paris, if I did not remember the
gender, I would mumble to mask my lack of knowledge or memory, i.e. instead of "le
livre", I might have said "l' livre" or "lə livre" so that it would be difficult for
the interlocutor to hear or decipher the article in case that I said the wrong one. But
that is just poor speaking on my part, but it is something that might occur for native
Anglophones.

Edited by 1e4e6 on 28 December 2013 at 12:44am

3 persons have voted this message useful



tarvos
Super Polyglot
Winner TAC 2012
Senior Member
China
likeapolyglot.wordpr
Joined 4512 days ago

5310 posts - 9399 votes 
Speaks: Dutch*, English, Swedish, French, Russian, German, Italian, Norwegian, Mandarin, Romanian, Afrikaans
Studies: Greek, Modern Hebrew, Spanish, Portuguese, Czech, Korean, Esperanto, Finnish

 
 Message 102 of 126
28 December 2013 at 11:13am | IP Logged 
Everybody does that "speak quickly, they won't catch the mistake" thing :)
1 person has voted this message useful



Stolan
Senior Member
United States
Joined 3837 days ago

274 posts - 368 votes 
Speaks: English*
Studies: Thai, Lowland Scots
Studies: Arabic (classical), Cantonese

 
 Message 103 of 126
28 December 2013 at 3:48pm | IP Logged 
Henkkles wrote:
It never fails to baffle me that people would assume all languages save for a few exceptions
would have grammatical gender.


But why would those few with gender or noun classes have such? What was their situation making distinctions in
language? I am not asking you, I just am clarifying what I meant.

Edited by Stolan on 28 December 2013 at 3:51pm

2 persons have voted this message useful



schoenewaelder
Diglot
Senior Member
Germany
Joined 5365 days ago

759 posts - 1197 votes 
Speaks: English*, French
Studies: German, Spanish, Dutch

 
 Message 104 of 126
28 December 2013 at 3:53pm | IP Logged 
Just to mention about "singular they", it's not something we're doing to deliberately avoid being sexist, it's actually the pronoun of choice, for talking about people. Without having thought about it too much, I suspect that I probably use he and she only when referring to specific, known, previously-named individuals. I find it even perfectly natural to say something like (whispering, pointing discretely) "did you see what they just did?" (as opposed to "did you see what that bloke just did?) which probably breaks even more grammatical rules.

(I'm sure there probably are occassionally situations when you could consciously choose to use it to be deliberately gender neutral, though)

Edited by schoenewaelder on 28 December 2013 at 3:57pm



1 person has voted this message useful



This discussion contains 126 messages over 16 pages: << Prev 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16  Next >>


Post ReplyPost New Topic Printable version Printable version

You cannot post new topics in this forum - You cannot reply to topics in this forum - You cannot delete your posts in this forum
You cannot edit your posts in this forum - You cannot create polls in this forum - You cannot vote in polls in this forum


This page was generated in 0.3750 seconds.


DHTML Menu By Milonic JavaScript
Copyright 2024 FX Micheloud - All rights reserved
No part of this website may be copied by any means without my written authorization.