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hribecek Triglot Senior Member Czech Republic Joined 5349 days ago 1243 posts - 1458 votes Speaks: English*, Czech, Spanish Studies: Italian, Polish, Slovak, Hungarian, Toki Pona, Russian
| Message 481 of 1549 17 April 2011 at 11:36am | IP Logged |
maxval wrote:
hribecek wrote:
"Mi téved majd megölünk."
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Plz explain this! |
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"We're going to kill you!"
I think this is a bit of a translation from Czech as they would say it in this form to emphasise the desire to kill someone and scare them.
"My tě zabijem!" (slang form)
I used the'téved' form because the men don't know that there are two boys and I thought that when threatening to kill someone they would use the informal you.
1 person has voted this message useful
| hribecek Triglot Senior Member Czech Republic Joined 5349 days ago 1243 posts - 1458 votes Speaks: English*, Czech, Spanish Studies: Italian, Polish, Slovak, Hungarian, Toki Pona, Russian
| Message 482 of 1549 17 April 2011 at 11:50am | IP Logged |
I have a question.
As you can see, I have a lot of problems knowing whether to use 'meg...' or not with the verbs. Is it basically like aspect in Slavic languages?
The main problem I have is that in Czech the perfective verbs can't be used in the present tense (I'm sure it's the same in Russian and Bulgarian?), so I struggle to get a feeling for how it can be used in the present.
I struggle with the differences between for example
MEGTALÁL/TALÁL
For me 'to find' is always a completed action. Does this mean that 'talál' means more like 'to look for' and if that is the case then is 'keres' the same as 'talál'?
With some verbs I understand thanks to Czech aspect, like with 'meghall' and 'hall' the difference is clear.
Thanks in advance and I hope my question is clear.
Edited by hribecek on 17 April 2011 at 1:14pm
1 person has voted this message useful
| maxval Pentaglot Senior Member Bulgaria maxval.co.nr Joined 5073 days ago 852 posts - 1577 votes Speaks: Hungarian*, Bulgarian, English, Spanish, Russian Studies: Latin, Modern Hebrew
| Message 483 of 1549 17 April 2011 at 1:20pm | IP Logged |
hribecek wrote:
maxval wrote:
hribecek wrote:
"Mi téved majd megölünk."
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|
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Plz explain this! |
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|
"We're going to kill you!"
I think this is a bit of a translation from Czech as they would say it in this form to emphasise the desire to kill someone and scare them.
"My tě zabijem!" (slang form)
I used the'téved' form because the men don't know that there are two boys and I thought that when threatening to kill someone they would use the informal you. |
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OK. It is téGed, I didnt recognize it, sorry!
3 persons have voted this message useful
| hribecek Triglot Senior Member Czech Republic Joined 5349 days ago 1243 posts - 1458 votes Speaks: English*, Czech, Spanish Studies: Italian, Polish, Slovak, Hungarian, Toki Pona, Russian
| Message 484 of 1549 17 April 2011 at 1:26pm | IP Logged |
maxval wrote:
OK. It is téGed, I didnt recognize it, sorry! |
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That was a stupid mistake from me and shows that I still have problems with even very basic Hungarian words like 'you'!
1 person has voted this message useful
| maxval Pentaglot Senior Member Bulgaria maxval.co.nr Joined 5073 days ago 852 posts - 1577 votes Speaks: Hungarian*, Bulgarian, English, Spanish, Russian Studies: Latin, Modern Hebrew
| Message 485 of 1549 17 April 2011 at 1:50pm | IP Logged |
hribecek wrote:
I have a question.
As you can see, I have a lot of problems knowing whether to use 'meg...' or not with the verbs. Is it basically like aspect in Slavic languages?
The main problem I have is that in Czech the perfective verbs can't be used in the present tense (I'm sure it's the same in Russian and Bulgarian?), so I struggle to get a feeling for how it can be used in the present.
I struggle with the differences between for example
MEGTALÁL/TALÁL
For me 'to find' is always a completed action. Does this mean that 'talál' means more like 'to look for' and if that is the case then is 'keres' the same as 'talál'?
With some verbs I understand thanks to Czech aspect, like with 'meghall' and 'hall' the difference is clear.
Thanks in advance and I hope my question is clear. |
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Yes, your question is very clear, but it is very difficult to answer...
In reality in Hungarian there is no grammatical aspect, as in Slavic languages (imperfective vs perfective). But part of the Hungarian verb prefixes sometimes express the same concept as grammatical aspects in Slavic languages. The important difference is that there is no 100 % relationship between Slavic and Hungarian. In Slavic languages in determined situations it is compulsory to use the perfective form, in Hungarian it is not. You can use in the same situation both forms, and they will mean something little bit different.
For example:
Találtam egy követ a folyóban
Megtaláltam egy követ a folyóban
Both means "I found a stone in the river", but the second version makes an emphasis, maybe the difference can be espressed in English as:
Találtam egy követ a folyóban = I found a stone in the river
Megtaláltam egy követ a folyóban = I did find a stone in the river
So, dont try to use here Slavic logic, it wont work.
Interesting: in Bulgarian there are THREE aspects: imperfective, perfective, and secondary imperfective. I dont know if the same exits in Czech too.
For example (with the word чета /cheta/ read):
- imperfective: чета /cheta/,
- perfective: прочета /procheta/,
- secondary imperfective: прочитам /prochitam/.
4 persons have voted this message useful
| maxval Pentaglot Senior Member Bulgaria maxval.co.nr Joined 5073 days ago 852 posts - 1577 votes Speaks: Hungarian*, Bulgarian, English, Spanish, Russian Studies: Latin, Modern Hebrew
| Message 486 of 1549 17 April 2011 at 1:51pm | IP Logged |
hribecek wrote:
maxval wrote:
OK. It is téGed, I didnt recognize it, sorry! |
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That was a stupid mistake from me and shows that I still have problems with even very basic Hungarian words like 'you'! |
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I thought you used the word "téved", and I was unable to realize why... :-)
2 persons have voted this message useful
| hribecek Triglot Senior Member Czech Republic Joined 5349 days ago 1243 posts - 1458 votes Speaks: English*, Czech, Spanish Studies: Italian, Polish, Slovak, Hungarian, Toki Pona, Russian
| Message 487 of 1549 17 April 2011 at 2:09pm | IP Logged |
maxval wrote:
Yes, your question is very clear, but it is very difficult to answer...
In reality in Hungarian there is no grammatical aspect, as in Slavic languages (imperfective vs perfective). But part of the Hungarian verb prefixes sometimes express the same concept as grammatical aspects in Slavic languages. The important difference is that there is no 100 % relationship between Slavic and Hungarian. In Slavic languages in determined situations it is compulsory to use the perfective form, in Hungarian it is not. You can use in the same situation both forms, and they will mean something little bit different.
For example:
Találtam egy követ a folyóban
Megtaláltam egy követ a folyóban
Both means "I found a stone in the river", but the second version makes an emphasis, maybe the difference can be espressed in English as:
Találtam egy követ a folyóban = I found a stone in the river
Megtaláltam egy követ a folyóban = I did find a stone in the river
So, dont try to use here Slavic logic, it wont work.
Interesting: in Bulgarian there are THREE aspects: imperfective, perfective, and secondary imperfective. I dont know if the same exits in Czech too.
For example (with the word чета /cheta/ read):
- imperfective: чета /cheta/,
- perfective: прочета /procheta/,
- secondary imperfective: прочитам /prochitam/.
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Thanks for the explanation, I think I understand it but I'll just need to practise and hopefully gain a feel for this difference.
The 3rd aspect also exists in Czech and there is even a 4th one but it's quite similar in meaning to the 3rd one and only used very rarely. I'm not an expert on this so I don't know what it's called.
For example -
´to have´ - mít (normal imperfective)
mívat
mívávat
´to be´ - být
bývat
bývávat
I don´t know the difference really between the second and third one but I think the third one is when the meaning is something very rare. You can probably explain it better than me as you´re a linguist.
1 person has voted this message useful
| hribecek Triglot Senior Member Czech Republic Joined 5349 days ago 1243 posts - 1458 votes Speaks: English*, Czech, Spanish Studies: Italian, Polish, Slovak, Hungarian, Toki Pona, Russian
| Message 488 of 1549 17 April 2011 at 2:12pm | IP Logged |
maxval wrote:
hribecek wrote:
maxval wrote:
OK. It is téGed, I didnt recognize it, sorry! |
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That was a stupid mistake from me and shows that I still have problems with even very basic Hungarian words like 'you'! |
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I thought you used the word "téved", and I was unable to realize why... :-) |
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That's quite funny. I just looked up the meaning of the word 'téved' and it means camel or err, doesn't it? I'm not surprised you were confused in that case. Sorry!
1 person has voted this message useful
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